OCR GCSE Triple Science

Chemistry

Recall & Retrieval Questions


Science Triple 894 questions

OCR Triple Science Chemistry

How to Use This

  1. Cover the answer and try to recall it from memory first — that's what makes it stick.
  2. Press "Reveal Answer" to check what you wrote against the model answer.
  3. Tick the circle once you're confident with a question, and come back to the ones you're not.
  4. Your progress is saved on this device, so you can pick up where you left off.

Your Progress

0 / 894
0 Completed
894 Remaining

Paper 1

C1: Particles

C1.1a Describe the main features of the particle model in terms of states of matter and change of state

1.

What are the three states of matter?

Solid, liquid and gas.
2.

How are particles arranged in a solid?

Particles in a solid are closely packed in a fixed, regular arrangement and vibrate about fixed positions.
3.

How are particles arranged in a liquid?

Particles in a liquid are close together but randomly arranged and can move past each other.
4.

How are particles arranged in a gas?

Particles in a gas are far apart, randomly arranged and move rapidly in all directions.
5.

What happens to particles during melting?

Particles gain energy and are able to move past each other while remaining close together.
6.

What happens to particles during boiling?

Particles gain enough energy to overcome the forces of attraction between them and move far apart.

C1.1b Explain in terms of the particle model the distinction between physical changes and chemical changes

1.

What is a physical change?

A physical change does not produce a new substance.
2.

What is a chemical change?

A chemical change produces one or more new substances.
3.

Why is melting a physical change?

Melting is a physical change because the particles remain the same.
4.

Why is burning magnesium a chemical change?

Burning magnesium is a chemical change because magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
5.

What happens to particles during a physical change?

During a physical change, the particles remain the same but their arrangement or movement changes.
6.

What happens to particles during a chemical change?

During a chemical change, atoms are rearranged to form new substances.

C1.1c Explain the limitations of the particle model in relation to changes of state when particles are represented by inelastic spheres (e.g. like bowling balls)

1.

What does the simple particle model represent particles as?

Particles are represented as solid, inelastic spheres.
2.

Which force between particles is not shown by the simple particle model?

The model does not show the forces of attraction between particles.
3.

Why does the simple particle model not fully explain changes of state?

It cannot explain how attractive forces change during changes of state.
4.

What limitation does the simple particle model have when representing the size of particles?

It does not represent the true relative size of particles.
5.

What limitation does the simple particle model have when representing the space between particles?

It does not accurately represent the spaces between particles.
6.

State three limitations of the simple particle model.

The simple particle model does not show forces between particles, true particle size or true spacing.

C1.2a Describe how and why the atomic model has changed over time

1.

Who proposed the first modern atomic model?

John Dalton.
2.

What did J. J. Thomson discover?

The electron.
3.

What did Rutherford conclude from the alpha particle scattering experiment?

Atoms contain a small, dense, positively charged nucleus.
4.

How did Bohr improve the atomic model?

Electrons occupy fixed energy levels (shells) around the nucleus.
5.

What evidence from the Geiger and Marsden experiment supported Rutherford's model?

Most alpha particles passed straight through the foil, but some were deflected or bounced back.
6.

Why has the atomic model changed over time?

New experimental evidence led scientists to revise and improve the atomic model.

C1.2b Describe the atom as a positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons, with the nuclear radius much smaller than that of the atom and with most of the mass in the nucleus

1.

What is found in the centre of an atom?

The nucleus.
2.

What is the charge of the nucleus?

Positive.
3.

What is the charge of an electron?

Negative.
4.

Where are electrons found in an atom?

In energy levels (shells) surrounding the nucleus.
5.

Where is most of the mass of an atom found?

In the nucleus.
6.

How does the size of the nucleus compare with the size of the atom?

The nucleus is much smaller than the atom.

C1.2c Recall the typical size (order of magnitude) of atoms and small molecules

1.

What is the typical radius of an atom?

About 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m (0.1 nm).
2.

What is the typical length of a chemical bond?

About 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m (0.1 nm).
3.

What is meant by an order of magnitude?

An order of magnitude is a factor of ten.
4.

Approximately how many nanometres are in a metre?

1 × 10⁹ nanometres.
5.

Why are atoms not visible with the naked eye?

They are around 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m, far too small to be seen with the naked eye.
6.

Why is the typical size of atoms useful when comparing them with everyday objects?

It provides a scale for comparing atoms with larger objects.

C1.2d Recall relative charges and approximate relative masses of protons, neutrons and electrons

1.

What is the relative charge of a proton?

+1.
2.

What is the relative charge of a neutron?

0.
3.

What is the relative charge of an electron?

−1.
4.

What is the approximate relative mass of a proton?

1.
5.

What is the approximate relative mass of a neutron?

1.
6.

What is the approximate relative mass of an electron?

Approximately 1/1836.

C1.2e Calculate numbers of protons, neutrons and electrons in atoms and ions, given atomic number and mass number of isotopes

1.

What is the atomic number of an atom?

The number of protons.
2.

What is the mass number of an atom?

The total number of protons and neutrons.
3.

How can you calculate the number of neutrons in an atom?

Mass number − atomic number.
4.

How can you calculate the number of electrons in a positive ion?

Number of protons − ionic charge.
5.

What is an isotope?

Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons.
6.

An atom has atomic number 17 and mass number 37. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does it contain?

17 protons, 20 neutrons and 17 electrons.

C2: Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

C2.1a Explain what is meant by the purity of a substance, distinguishing between the scientific and everyday use of the term 'pure'

1.

What is a pure substance in chemistry?

A pure substance contains only one element or one compound.
2.

How is the everyday meaning of the word 'pure' different from the scientific meaning?

The everyday meaning is that something contains no unwanted substances.
3.

Why is pure orange juice not considered a pure substance in chemistry?

Because it is a mixture of different substances.
4.

Why is distilled water considered a pure substance?

Because it contains only water molecules.
5.

Why are mixtures not considered pure substances?

Mixtures contain two or more substances that are not chemically bonded.
6.

How can the scientific definition of purity be used to classify a substance?

By determining whether it contains only one substance or is a mixture.

C2.1b Use melting point data to distinguish pure from impure substances

1.

What happens to the melting point of a pure substance?

It melts at a fixed temperature.
2.

What happens to the melting point of an impure substance?

It melts over a range of temperatures.
3.

Why do impurities affect the melting point of a substance?

Impurities disrupt the regular arrangement of particles.
4.

How can melting point data be used to identify a pure substance?

Compare the measured melting point with the known value for the pure substance.
5.

Which would have the sharper melting point: a pure substance or an impure substance?

A pure substance.
6.

A substance melts over the range 76–82 °C. Is it likely to be pure or impure?

Impure.

C2.1c Calculate relative formula masses of species separately and in a balanced chemical equation

1.

What is meant by relative atomic mass (Ar)?

The weighted mean mass of an atom compared with 1/12 of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
2.

What is meant by relative molecular mass (Mr)?

The total relative atomic masses of all the atoms in a molecule.
3.

What is meant by relative formula mass?

The total relative atomic masses of all the atoms in a formula unit.
4.

How is the relative formula mass of a substance calculated?

Add together the relative atomic masses of all the atoms in the formula.
5.

Calculate the relative formula mass (Mr) of carbon dioxide (CO₂).

44 (C = 12, O = 16 × 2 = 32; 12 + 32 = 44).
6.

Calculate the total relative formula mass of the reactants in the equation 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O.

36 (2H₂ = 2 × 2 = 4; O₂ = 32; 4 + 32 = 36).

C2.1d Deduce the empirical formula of a compound from the relative numbers of atoms present or from a model or diagram and vice versa

1.

What is an empirical formula?

The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms in a compound.
2.

How is an empirical formula different from a molecular formula?

A molecular formula shows the actual number of atoms; an empirical formula shows the simplest ratio.
3.

What is the empirical formula of H₂O₂?

HO.
4.

What is the empirical formula of C₆H₁₂O₆?

CH₂O.
5.

A compound contains carbon and hydrogen in the ratio 1:2. What is its empirical formula?

CH₂.
6.

A compound has the empirical formula CH₂. Give one possible molecular formula.

C₂H₄.

C2.1e Explain that many useful materials are formulations of mixtures

1.

What is meant by a formulation?

A mixture designed to produce a useful product with specific properties.
2.

Why are formulations made from mixtures rather than pure substances?

Different substances provide different required properties.
3.

What is an alloy?

A mixture of metals.
4.

Why are alloys considered formulations?

Because they are carefully designed mixtures with specific properties.
5.

Give one example of a formulation used in everyday life.

Paint.
6.

Why is stainless steel described as a formulation rather than a pure substance?

Because stainless steel is a mixture of iron with other elements.

C2.1f Describe, explain and exemplify the processes of filtration, crystallisation, simple distillation and fractional distillation

1.

Which separation technique is used to separate an insoluble solid from a liquid?

Filtration.
2.

Which separation technique is used to obtain crystals from a solution?

Crystallisation.
3.

Which separation technique is used to separate a solvent from a solution?

Simple distillation.
4.

Which separation technique is used to separate a mixture of liquids with different boiling points?

Fractional distillation.
5.

Why does simple distillation work?

The solvent evaporates and is condensed because it has a lower boiling point than the dissolved solid.
6.

Why does fractional distillation separate liquids more effectively than simple distillation?

The fractionating column allows repeated evaporation and condensation, separating liquids with similar boiling points.

C2.1g Describe the techniques of paper and thin layer chromatography

1.

What is paper chromatography used to separate?

Mixtures of soluble substances.
2.

What is thin layer chromatography (TLC)?

Chromatography using a thin layer of adsorbent on a plate as the stationary phase.
3.

What is an aqueous solvent?

A solvent containing water.
4.

What is a non-aqueous solvent?

A solvent that does not contain water.
5.

What is a locating agent used for in chromatography?

To make colourless substances visible.
6.

Why might a non-aqueous solvent be chosen instead of water for chromatography?

When the substances do not dissolve well in water.

C2.1h Recall that chromatography involves a stationary and a mobile phase and that separation depends on the distribution between the phases

1.

What is the stationary phase in paper chromatography?

The paper.
2.

What is the mobile phase in paper chromatography?

The solvent.
3.

Which phase moves during chromatography?

The mobile phase.
4.

Which phase remains fixed during chromatography?

The stationary phase.
5.

Why do different substances travel different distances during chromatography?

They have different attractions to the stationary and mobile phases.
6.

Explain how the distribution between the mobile and stationary phases separates a mixture.

Substances spend different amounts of time in each phase, so they travel different distances.

C2.1i Interpret chromatograms, including measuring Rf values

1.

What does Rf stand for?

Retention factor.
2.

How do you measure the distance travelled by a substance on a chromatogram?

From the pencil baseline to the centre of the spot.
3.

How do you measure the distance travelled by the solvent front?

From the pencil baseline to the solvent front.
4.

Write the equation used to calculate an Rf value.

Distance travelled by the substance ÷ distance travelled by the solvent front.
5.

Calculate the Rf value if a spot travels 4.0 cm and the solvent front travels 8.0 cm.

0.50.
6.

Why should Rf values only be compared when the same solvent and experimental conditions are used?

Because Rf values depend on the solvent and experimental conditions.

C2.1j Suggest suitable purification techniques given information about the substances involved

1.

Which purification technique would you use to separate an insoluble solid from a liquid?

Filtration.
2.

Which purification technique would you use to obtain a pure dissolved solid from a solution?

Crystallisation.
3.

Which purification technique would you use to obtain a pure solvent from a solution?

Simple distillation.
4.

Which purification technique would you use to separate two liquids with different boiling points?

Fractional distillation.
5.

Which purification technique would you use to separate the components of a coloured mixture?

Chromatography.
6.

How would you choose the most suitable purification technique for a mixture?

By considering the physical properties of the substances, such as solubility and boiling point.

C2.1k Suggest chromatographic methods for distinguishing pure from impure substances

1.

Which three types of chromatography are named in the specification?

Paper chromatography, thin layer chromatography and gas chromatography.
2.

How many spots would a pure substance produce on a chromatogram?

One spot.
3.

How many spots would an impure substance produce on a chromatogram?

More than one spot.
4.

Which type of chromatography is commonly used to separate gases?

Gas chromatography.
5.

Which type of chromatography is commonly used in school laboratories to separate coloured substances?

Paper chromatography.
6.

How can chromatography be used to distinguish a pure substance from an impure substance?

A pure substance produces one spot, whereas an impure substance produces more than one spot.

C2.2a Describe metals and non-metals and explain the differences between them on the basis of their characteristic physical and chemical properties

1.

What is a metal?

An element that forms positive ions and conducts electricity.
2.

What is a non-metal?

An element that forms negative ions and is a poor conductor of electricity.
3.

State two physical properties of metals.

Good conductors of electricity and malleable.
4.

State two physical properties of non-metals.

Poor conductors of electricity and brittle (if solid).
5.

What type of ions do metals usually form?

Positive ions (cations).
6.

What is formed when a metal reacts with oxygen?

A metal oxide.

C2.2b Explain how the atomic structure of metals and non-metals relates to their position in the Periodic Table

1.

Where are metals found in the Periodic Table?

On the left and centre of the Periodic Table.
2.

Where are non-metals found in the Periodic Table?

On the right-hand side of the Periodic Table.
3.

Why do metal atoms tend to lose electrons?

They have few outer-shell electrons, which are easily lost.
4.

Why do non-metal atoms tend to gain electrons?

They have nearly full outer shells and gain electrons to achieve a full outer shell.
5.

How does the number of outer-shell electrons differ between metals and non-metals?

Metals usually have 1–3 outer-shell electrons, whereas non-metals usually have 4–7.
6.

How does an element's position in the Periodic Table help you identify whether it is a metal or a non-metal?

Metals are generally found on the left of the Periodic Table and non-metals on the right.

C2.2c Explain how the position of an element in the Periodic Table is related to the arrangement of electrons in its atoms and hence to its atomic number

1.

What does the atomic number of an element represent?

The number of protons.
2.

What does the group number tell you about an atom?

The number of electrons in the outer shell.
3.

What does the period number tell you about an atom?

The number of occupied electron shells.
4.

How many occupied electron shells does a Period 3 element have?

Three occupied electron shells.
5.

How many electrons are in the outer shell of a Group 2 element?

Two outer-shell electrons.
6.

An element has atomic number 17. State its electron arrangement, group number and period number.

Electron arrangement 2,8,7; Group 7; Period 3.

C2.2d Describe and compare the nature and arrangement of chemical bonds in: ionic compounds, simple molecules, giant covalent structures, polymers and metals

1.

What type of bonding is found in ionic compounds?

Ionic bonding.
2.

What type of bonding is found in simple molecules?

Covalent bonding.
3.

What type of bonding is found in giant covalent structures?

Giant covalent bonding.
4.

What type of bonding is found in polymers?

Covalent bonding.
5.

What type of bonding is found in metals?

Metallic bonding.
6.

How does the arrangement of particles in a giant covalent structure differ from that in a simple molecular substance?

Giant covalent structures consist of a continuous network of covalent bonds, whereas simple molecular substances consist of individual molecules with intermolecular forces between them.

C2.2e Explain chemical bonding in terms of electrostatic forces and the transfer or sharing of electrons

1.

What happens to electrons during ionic bonding?

Electrons are transferred from one atom to another.
2.

What happens to electrons during covalent bonding?

Electrons are shared between atoms.
3.

What is meant by electrostatic attraction?

The attraction between opposite charges.
4.

What causes the attraction between oppositely charged ions in an ionic compound?

Electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions.
5.

What causes the attraction between the nuclei and the shared pair of electrons in a covalent bond?

Electrostatic attraction between the positively charged nuclei and the shared pair of electrons.
6.

Explain how electron transfer leads to ionic bonding.

Electron transfer forms oppositely charged ions, which attract each other by electrostatic forces.

C2.2f Construct dot and cross diagrams for simple covalent and binary ionic substances

1.

What does a dot and cross diagram show?

The arrangement of outer-shell electrons.
2.

Draw a dot and cross diagram for hydrogen (H₂).

A shared pair of electrons between two hydrogen atoms.
3.

Draw a dot and cross diagram for chlorine (Cl₂).

One shared pair of electrons between each chlorine atom.
4.

Draw a dot and cross diagram for water (H₂O).

Two O–H single covalent bonds with two lone pairs on the oxygen atom.
5.

Draw a dot and cross diagram for sodium chloride (NaCl).

Sodium loses one electron to chlorine, forming Na⁺ and Cl⁻.
6.

Draw a dot and cross diagram for magnesium oxide (MgO).

Magnesium loses two electrons to oxygen, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻.

C2.2g Describe the limitations of particular representations and models (dot and cross diagrams, ball and stick models and two- and three-dimensional representations)

1.

What does a dot and cross diagram show?

The arrangement of outer-shell electrons in bonds.
2.

Give one limitation of a dot and cross diagram.

They do not show the true sizes of atoms or the shape of molecules.
3.

What does a ball and stick model show?

The arrangement of atoms and the bonds between them.
4.

Give one limitation of a ball and stick model.

The sizes of atoms and bond lengths are not to scale.
5.

Why are two-dimensional diagrams limited when representing molecules?

They cannot fully represent the three-dimensional arrangement of atoms.
6.

Why are models useful even though they have limitations?

They simplify complex structures, making them easier to understand while not showing every detail.

C2.2h Explain how the reactions of elements are related to the arrangement of electrons in their atoms and hence to their atomic number

1.

What determines the chemical properties of an element?

The arrangement of electrons, especially those in the outer shell.
2.

Why do elements in the same group have similar chemical properties?

They have the same number of outer-shell electrons.
3.

Why are Group 1 metals very reactive?

They lose their single outer-shell electron easily.
4.

Why are Group 7 elements reactive?

They gain one electron to achieve a full outer shell.
5.

Why are Group 0 elements unreactive?

They have full outer electron shells.
6.

Explain how an element's atomic number is linked to its chemical reactions.

Atomic number determines electron arrangement, which determines chemical properties.

C2.2i Explain in terms of atomic number how Mendeleev's arrangement was refined into the modern Periodic Table

1.

Who developed the first widely accepted Periodic Table?

Dmitri Mendeleev.
2.

How did Mendeleev arrange the elements?

Increasing relative atomic mass.
3.

What discovery allowed the Periodic Table to be refined?

The discovery of the atomic number.
4.

How are elements arranged in the modern Periodic Table?

Increasing atomic number.
5.

Why did Mendeleev leave gaps in his Periodic Table?

To leave space for undiscovered elements.
6.

Explain how atomic number improved the arrangement of the modern Periodic Table.

Arranging elements by atomic number correctly groups elements with similar properties and removes earlier anomalies.

C2.3a Recall that carbon can form four covalent bonds

1.

How many covalent bonds can a carbon atom form?

Four.
2.

Why is carbon able to form four covalent bonds?

It has four electrons in its outer shell.
3.

What type of bond does carbon form with other non-metal atoms?

Covalent bonds.
4.

Draw a carbon atom showing how it can form four covalent bonds.

A carbon atom with four outer-shell electrons available for bonding.
5.

Why does carbon's ability to form four covalent bonds allow many different compounds to exist?

It allows carbon to form many different structures.
6.

Give one example of a substance containing carbon atoms joined by covalent bonds.

Methane.

C2.3b Explain that the vast array of natural and synthetic organic compounds occur due to the ability of carbon to form families of similar compounds, chains and rings

1.

What is an organic compound?

A compound containing carbon.
2.

Why can carbon form such a large number of different compounds?

Carbon forms four covalent bonds.
3.

What is meant by a family of similar compounds?

A homologous series.
4.

What is the difference between a carbon chain and a carbon ring?

A chain is open, whereas a ring forms a closed loop of carbon atoms.
5.

Why can both natural and synthetic organic compounds exist in such large numbers?

Carbon can bond to itself in many different ways, forming chains, branches and rings.
6.

Explain why carbon's bonding leads to a vast range of organic compounds.

Carbon's ability to form four covalent bonds allows it to form a vast range of natural and synthetic organic compounds.

C2.3c Explain the properties of diamond, graphite, fullerenes and graphene in terms of their structures and bonding

1.

What type of structure does diamond have?

A giant covalent structure.
2.

Why is diamond extremely hard?

Each carbon atom forms four strong covalent bonds.
3.

Why can graphite conduct electricity?

Each carbon atom has one delocalised electron that can move through the structure.
4.

What are fullerenes?

Molecules of carbon atoms with hollow cage or tube structures.
5.

What is graphene?

A single layer of carbon atoms arranged in hexagons.
6.

Explain how the structures and bonding of diamond and graphite result in their different properties.

Diamond is hard because each carbon forms four strong covalent bonds, whereas graphite is soft and conducts electricity because each carbon forms three covalent bonds with one delocalised electron.

C2.3d Use ideas about energy transfers and the relative strength of chemical bonds and intermolecular forces to explain the different temperatures at which changes of state occur

1.

What happens to energy when a substance melts or boils?

Energy is absorbed.
2.

What happens to energy when a substance freezes or condenses?

Energy is released.
3.

What are intermolecular forces?

Weak forces between molecules.
4.

Why do substances with stronger intermolecular forces have higher melting and boiling points?

More energy is needed to overcome the stronger intermolecular forces.
5.

Why is less energy needed to melt a simple molecular substance than a giant covalent substance?

Only weak intermolecular forces need to be overcome.
6.

Explain why different substances change state at different temperatures.

Substances with stronger bonds or intermolecular forces require more energy to change state, so they have higher melting and boiling points.

C2.3e Use data to predict states of substances under given conditions

1.

What information is needed to predict the state of a substance?

The melting point and boiling point.
2.

If the temperature is below the melting point, what state will a substance be in?

Solid.
3.

If the temperature is between the melting point and boiling point, what state will a substance be in?

Liquid.
4.

If the temperature is above the boiling point, what state will a substance be in?

Gas.
5.

Use melting point and boiling point data to predict the state of a substance at a given temperature.

Compare the temperature with the melting point and boiling point.
6.

Explain how changes in temperature can cause a substance to change state.

Heating increases particle energy until the melting point or boiling point is reached, causing a change of state.

C2.3f Explain how the bulk properties of materials (ionic compounds; simple molecules; giant covalent structures; polymers and metals) are related to the different types of bonds they contain, their bond strengths in relation to intermolecular forces and the ways in which their bonds are arranged

1.

Why do ionic compounds generally have high melting and boiling points?

Strong electrostatic attractions between oppositely charged ions.
2.

Why do simple molecular substances usually have low melting and boiling points?

Weak intermolecular forces between molecules.
3.

Why do giant covalent structures have very high melting and boiling points?

Strong covalent bonds throughout the giant structure.
4.

Why do metals conduct electricity?

They contain delocalised electrons that can move through the structure.
5.

How does the bonding in polymers differ from that in simple molecular substances?

Polymers have long chains of covalently bonded atoms with intermolecular forces between the chains.
6.

Explain how bonding, bond strength and structure determine the bulk properties of ionic compounds, simple molecules, giant covalent structures, polymers and metals.

The type of bonding, bond strength and structure determine the physical properties of the material.

C2.3g Compare 'nano' dimensions to typical dimensions of atoms and molecules

1.

What does the prefix "nano" mean?

One billionth (10⁻⁹).
2.

What is the approximate size of a nanoparticle?

Between 1 and 100 nm.
3.

How does the size of a nanoparticle compare with the size of an atom?

A nanoparticle is much larger than an atom.
4.

How does the size of a nanoparticle compare with the size of a molecule?

A nanoparticle is generally larger than a simple molecule.
5.

Why are nanoparticles described as being on the nanometre scale?

Their dimensions are measured in nanometres.
6.

Compare the typical dimensions of nanoparticles, atoms and molecules.

Nanoparticles are about 1–100 nm in size, whereas atoms and small molecules are typically about 0.1 nm.

C2.3h Describe the surface area to volume relationship for different-sized particles and describe how this affects properties

1.

What happens to the surface area to volume ratio as particle size decreases?

It increases.
2.

Which has the larger surface area to volume ratio: a large particle or a small particle?

A small particle.
3.

Why do smaller particles react more quickly than larger particles?

More particles are exposed, so collisions occur more frequently.
4.

How does increasing surface area to volume ratio affect the rate at which a substance dissolves?

It increases the rate of dissolving.
5.

Why are powders often more reactive than large lumps of the same substance?

Powders have a larger surface area to volume ratio.
6.

Explain how the surface area to volume ratio affects the properties of small particles.

A larger surface area to volume ratio increases the rate of reactions and dissolving.

C2.3i Describe how the properties of nanoparticulate materials are related to their uses

1.

What is a nanoparticle?

A particle between 1 and 100 nm in size.
2.

Why do nanoparticles often have different properties from larger particles of the same substance?

They have a much larger surface area to volume ratio.
3.

Why are nanoparticles useful as catalysts?

Their large surface area makes them more effective catalysts.
4.

Why are nanoparticles used in products such as sunscreens?

They absorb or reflect ultraviolet radiation while remaining transparent to visible light.
5.

Give one other use of nanoparticulate materials.

Drug delivery.
6.

Explain how the properties of nanoparticles make them suitable for their uses.

Their unique properties, particularly their large surface area to volume ratio, make them useful in applications such as catalysts, sunscreens and drug delivery.

C2.3j Explain the possible risks associated with some nanoparticulate materials

1.

Why are scientists investigating the safety of nanoparticles?

Their effects on health and the environment are not yet fully understood.
2.

Why can nanoparticles enter the body more easily than larger particles?

They are small enough to pass through cell membranes.
3.

Why are the long-term effects of some nanoparticles uncertain?

There is limited evidence about their long-term effects.
4.

Give one possible risk associated with the use of nanoparticles.

They may damage cells or tissues.
5.

Why should the benefits of nanoparticles be weighed against their risks?

Their benefits should be balanced against any possible health or environmental risks.
6.

Explain why more research is needed into the use of some nanoparticulate materials.

More research is needed because the long-term effects of some nanoparticulate materials are still uncertain.

C3: Chemical Reactions

C3.1a Use chemical symbols to write the formulae of elements and simple covalent and ionic compounds

1.

What is a chemical formula?

A representation of a substance using chemical symbols to show the types and numbers of atoms present.
2.

Write the chemical formula for water.

H₂O.
3.

Write the chemical formula for magnesium oxide.

MgO.
4.

Write the chemical formula for calcium chloride.

CaCl₂.
5.

A compound is made from calcium ions (Ca²⁺) and nitrate ions (NO₃⁻). What is its chemical formula?

Ca(NO₃)₂.
6.

A student writes the formula for aluminium oxide as AlO. Explain why this is incorrect and write the correct chemical formula.

Aluminium forms Al³⁺ ions and oxide forms O²⁻ ions, so the charges balance in Al₂O₃, not AlO.

C3.1b Use the names and symbols of common elements and compounds and the principle of conservation of mass to write formulae and balanced chemical equations and half equations

1.

What does it mean for a chemical equation to be balanced?

It has the same number of each type of atom on both sides of the equation.
2.

State the law of conservation of mass.

Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
3.

Balance the equation: H₂ + O₂ → H₂O.

2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O.
4.

Write the balanced symbol equation for magnesium reacting with oxygen.

2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO.
5.

What is a half equation?

An equation showing either oxidation or reduction by itself.
6.

Write the half equation for the reduction of copper(II) ions to copper.

Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu.

C3.1c Use the names and symbols of common elements from a supplied Periodic Table to write formulae and balanced chemical equations where appropriate

1.

What is the chemical symbol for calcium?

Ca.
2.

Write the chemical formula for calcium oxide.

CaO.
3.

Write the balanced symbol equation for sodium reacting with chlorine.

2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl.
4.

Write the balanced symbol equation for calcium reacting with water.

Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂.
5.

A student writes K + Cl → KCl. Correct the equation.

2K + Cl₂ → 2KCl.
6.

Write the balanced symbol equation for aluminium reacting with oxygen.

4Al + 3O₂ → 2Al₂O₃.

C3.1d Use the formula of common ions to deduce the formula of a compound

1.

What is the charge on a nitrate ion?

−1.
2.

What is the charge on an oxide ion?

2−.
3.

Calcium ions (Ca²⁺) and chloride ions (Cl⁻) form a compound. What is its formula?

CaCl₂.
4.

Aluminium ions (Al³⁺) and oxide ions (O²⁻) form a compound. What is its formula?

Al₂O₃.
5.

Magnesium ions (Mg²⁺) and hydroxide ions (OH⁻) form a compound. What is its formula?

Mg(OH)₂.
6.

Iron(III) ions (Fe³⁺) and sulfate ions (SO₄²⁻) form a compound. What is its formula?

Fe₂(SO₄)₃.

C3.1e Construct balanced ionic equations

1.

What is an ionic equation?

An equation showing only the ions that take part in the reaction.
2.

What are spectator ions?

Ions that do not take part in the reaction.
3.

Write the ionic equation for the reaction between silver ions and chloride ions.

Ag⁺ + Cl⁻ → AgCl.
4.

Write the ionic equation for the neutralisation of hydrochloric acid by sodium hydroxide.

H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.
5.

Why are spectator ions omitted from ionic equations?

Because they remain unchanged during the reaction.
6.

A student writes Na⁺ + OH⁻ + H⁺ + Cl⁻ → NaCl + H₂O as an ionic equation. Write the correct ionic equation.

H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

C3.1f Describe the physical states of products and reactants using state symbols (s, l, g and aq)

1.

What does the state symbol (aq) mean?

Dissolved in water (aqueous).
2.

What state symbol is used for a gas?

(g).
3.

Add the correct state symbols to: Mg + HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂.

Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl₂(aq) + H₂(g).
4.

Add the correct state symbols to: AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃.

AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃(aq).
5.

Why are state symbols included in chemical equations?

They show the physical state of each reactant and product.
6.

A student labels solid sodium chloride as NaCl(aq). Write the correct state symbol.

NaCl(s).

C3.1g Recall and use the definitions of the Avogadro constant (in standard form) and of the mole

1.

What is the Avogadro constant in standard form?

6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹.
2.

What is one mole of a substance?

The amount of substance containing 6.02 × 10²³ particles.
3.

How many particles are in 2 moles of a substance?

1.204 × 10²⁴ particles.
4.

How many moles are present in 1.204 × 10²⁴ particles?

2 moles.
5.

One mole of carbon has a mass of 12 g. Calculate the mass of one carbon atom.

Approximately 2.0 × 10⁻²³ g.
6.

One mole of water has a mass of 18 g. Calculate the mass of one water molecule.

Approximately 3.0 × 10⁻²³ g.

C3.1h Explain how the mass of a given substance is related to the amount of that substance in moles and vice versa

1.

What equation links mass, moles and relative formula mass?

Moles = mass ÷ Mr.
2.

What is meant by the relative formula mass (Mr) of a substance?

The total relative mass of a substance compared with 1/12 of the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
3.

Calculate the number of moles in 36 g of water (Mr = 18).

2 mol.
4.

Calculate the mass of 0.5 mol of carbon dioxide (Mr = 44).

22 g.
5.

Calculate the number of moles in 49 g of sulfuric acid (Mr = 98).

0.5 mol.
6.

A sample contains 3 mol of calcium carbonate (Mr = 100). Calculate its mass.

300 g.

C3.1i Recall and use the law of conservation of mass

1.

State the law of conservation of mass.

Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
2.

Why does the total mass remain constant during a chemical reaction?

Because atoms are rearranged but are not created or destroyed.
3.

If 24 g of magnesium reacts completely with 16 g of oxygen, what mass of magnesium oxide is produced?

40 g.
4.

Why must chemical equations be balanced?

To show that the same number of each type of atom is present before and after the reaction.
5.

A reaction starts with 15 g of reactants. What is the total mass of products after the reaction has finished?

15 g.
6.

A student claims atoms are destroyed during chemical reactions. Explain why this is incorrect.

Atoms are rearranged during chemical reactions; they are not destroyed.

C3.1j Explain any observed changes in mass in non-enclosed systems during a chemical reaction and explain them using the particle model

1.

Why can the measured mass change during a reaction carried out in an open container?

Gases may enter or leave the container.
2.

Why does burning magnesium increase the mass of the product?

Oxygen from the air combines with the magnesium.
3.

Why does heating calcium carbonate in an open container decrease the measured mass?

Carbon dioxide gas escapes into the air.
4.

Explain, using the particle model, why these changes in mass occur.

Particles of gas enter or leave the system, changing the measured mass.
5.

Why would no overall mass change be observed if the same reactions were carried out in a sealed container?

Because no particles can enter or leave the sealed container.
6.

A reaction in an open flask loses 4 g of mass. Explain why this does not break the law of conservation of mass.

The lost mass is due to gas escaping, so the law of conservation of mass is not broken.

C3.1k Deduce the stoichiometry of an equation from the masses of reactants and products and explain the effect of a limiting quantity of a reactant

1.

What is meant by stoichiometry?

The quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a balanced equation.
2.

What is a limiting reactant?

The reactant that is completely used up first.
3.

Magnesium reacts with oxygen. 24 g of magnesium reacts completely with 16 g of oxygen. Deduce the balanced symbol equation.

2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO.
4.

In a reaction, one reactant is completely used up while another remains. Which reactant is the limiting reactant?

The reactant that is completely used up.
5.

12 g of magnesium reacts with 12 g of oxygen. Identify the limiting reactant.

Magnesium.
6.

Explain how the limiting reactant affects the maximum amount of product that can be formed.

It determines the maximum amount of product that can be formed.

C3.1l Use a balanced equation to calculate masses of reactants or products

1.

Why must a chemical equation be balanced before carrying out mole calculations?

To give the correct mole ratio between reactants and products.
2.

What is the first step when calculating masses from a balanced equation?

Write and balance the chemical equation.
3.

Calculate the mass of magnesium oxide produced from 24 g of magnesium.

40 g.
4.

Calcium carbonate decomposes according to CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide produced from 100 g of calcium carbonate (Mr: CaCO₃ = 100, CO₂ = 44).

44 g.
5.

Calculate the mass of oxygen required to react completely with 12 g of magnesium.

8 g.
6.

Hydrogen reacts with oxygen according to 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Calculate the mass of water produced when 4 g of hydrogen reacts completely with excess oxygen.

36 g.

C3.2a Distinguish between endothermic and exothermic reactions on the basis of the temperature change of the surroundings

1.

What is an exothermic reaction?

A reaction that transfers energy to the surroundings.
2.

What is an endothermic reaction?

A reaction that takes in energy from the surroundings.
3.

During an exothermic reaction, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?

The temperature of the surroundings increases.
4.

During an endothermic reaction, what happens to the temperature of the surroundings?

The temperature of the surroundings decreases.
5.

A reaction causes the temperature of the surroundings to increase from 20°C to 29°C. Is the reaction exothermic or endothermic?

Exothermic.
6.

A reaction causes the temperature of the surroundings to fall from 22°C to 15°C. Explain whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic using the temperature change of the surroundings.

Endothermic, because the temperature of the surroundings decreases as energy is absorbed from them.

C3.2b Draw and label a reaction profile for an exothermic and an endothermic reaction

1.

What is a reaction profile?

A diagram showing the energy changes during a chemical reaction.
2.

What is meant by activation energy?

The minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur.
3.

On a reaction profile, where are the reactants shown?

At the start of the reaction profile.
4.

On a reaction profile, where are the products shown?

At the end of the reaction profile.
5.

Draw and label a reaction profile for an exothermic reaction, including the reactants, products, activation energy and energy change.

Reactants at a higher energy level than the products, with the activation energy and overall energy change labelled.
6.

Draw and label a reaction profile for an endothermic reaction, including the reactants, products, activation energy and energy change.

Reactants at a lower energy level than the products, with the activation energy and overall energy change labelled.

C3.2c Explain activation energy as the energy needed for a reaction to occur

1.

What is activation energy?

The minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur.
2.

Why must reacting particles have activation energy?

So that reacting particles can react when they collide.
3.

What effect does increasing temperature have on the number of particles with enough activation energy?

More particles have enough energy to react.
4.

Why does heating a reaction usually increase its rate?

More particles have the activation energy, so there are more successful collisions each second.
5.

A reaction does not occur at room temperature but starts when heated. Explain why.

The particles do not have enough energy to overcome the activation energy until they are heated.
6.

A catalyst is added to a reaction. Explain why the reaction can occur more easily.

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.

C3.2d Calculate energy changes in a chemical reaction by considering bond making and bond breaking energies

1.

Is energy absorbed or released when chemical bonds are broken?

Absorbed.
2.

Is energy absorbed or released when chemical bonds are formed?

Released.
3.

State the equation used to calculate the energy change of a reaction using bond energies.

Energy change = energy to break bonds − energy released when bonds form.
4.

A reaction requires 480 kJ to break bonds and releases 620 kJ when new bonds form. Calculate the energy change.

−140 kJ.
5.

A reaction requires 720 kJ to break bonds and releases 650 kJ when new bonds form. Calculate the energy change and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

+70 kJ, so the reaction is endothermic.
6.

Hydrogen reacts with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride. The total energy needed to break bonds is 674 kJ and the total energy released when new bonds form is 862 kJ. Calculate the energy change and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.

−188 kJ, so the reaction is exothermic.

C3.3a Explain reduction and oxidation in terms of loss or gain of oxygen, identifying which species are oxidised and which are reduced

1.

What is oxidation in terms of oxygen?

Gain of oxygen.
2.

What is reduction in terms of oxygen?

Loss of oxygen.
3.

When magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide, is magnesium oxidised or reduced?

Oxidised.
4.

Copper(II) oxide is heated with carbon to produce copper and carbon dioxide. Is copper(II) oxide oxidised or reduced?

Reduced.
5.

In the reaction 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO, identify the species that is oxidised.

Magnesium.
6.

In the reaction 2CuO + C → 2Cu + CO₂, identify which species is reduced and which is oxidised.

Copper(II) oxide is reduced and carbon is oxidised.

C3.3b Explain reduction and oxidation in terms of gain or loss of electrons, identifying which species are oxidised and which are reduced (Higher Tier only)

1.

What is oxidation in terms of electrons?

Loss of electrons.
2.

What is reduction in terms of electrons?

Gain of electrons.
3.

If an atom loses electrons, is it oxidised or reduced?

Oxidised.
4.

If an ion gains electrons, is it oxidised or reduced?

Reduced.
5.

Magnesium forms Mg²⁺ by losing two electrons. Is magnesium oxidised or reduced?

Oxidised.
6.

Copper(II) ions gain two electrons to form copper atoms. Explain whether copper(II) ions are oxidised or reduced.

Copper(II) ions are reduced because they gain two electrons.

C3.3c Recall that acids form hydrogen ions when they dissolve in water and solutions of alkalis contain hydroxide ions

1.

Which ion is formed when an acid dissolves in water?

Hydrogen ions (H⁺).
2.

Which ion is present in an alkali solution?

Hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
3.

Which ion makes a solution acidic?

Hydrogen ions (H⁺).
4.

Which ion makes a solution alkaline?

Hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
5.

Hydrochloric acid dissolves in water. Which ion is responsible for its acidity?

Hydrogen ions (H⁺).
6.

Sodium hydroxide dissolves in water. Explain why the solution is alkaline.

It contains hydroxide ions (OH⁻), which make the solution alkaline.

C3.3d Describe neutralisation as acid reacting with alkali or a base to form a salt plus water

1.

What is a neutralisation reaction?

A reaction in which an acid reacts with an alkali or base to form a salt and water.
2.

What two products are always formed when an acid reacts with an alkali?

A salt and water.
3.

What is formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide?

Sodium chloride and water.
4.

Can a base neutralise an acid?

Yes.
5.

Sulfuric acid reacts with potassium hydroxide. What two types of products are formed?

A salt and water.
6.

Explain why the reaction between an acid and an alkali is called neutralisation.

The acid and alkali react to cancel each other's effects, producing a neutral solution if they react in the correct proportions.

C3.3e Recognise that aqueous neutralisation reactions can be generalised to hydrogen ions reacting with hydroxide ions to form water

1.

Which two ions react during neutralisation?

Hydrogen ions (H⁺) and hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
2.

What is the product of H⁺ + OH⁻?

Water (H₂O).
3.

Write the ionic equation for neutralisation.

H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.
4.

Why are spectator ions omitted from the ionic equation for neutralisation?

Because they do not take part in the reaction.
5.

Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide. Which ions actually react?

H⁺ and OH⁻.
6.

Nitric acid reacts with potassium hydroxide. Write the ionic equation for the reaction.

H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

C3.3f Recall that carbonates and some metals react with acids and write balanced equations predicting products from given reactants

1.

What gas is produced when a metal reacts with an acid?

Hydrogen.
2.

What gas is produced when a carbonate reacts with an acid?

Carbon dioxide.
3.

Write the balanced equation for magnesium + hydrochloric acid.

Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂.
4.

Write the balanced equation for calcium carbonate + hydrochloric acid.

CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O.
5.

Nitric acid reacts with zinc. Predict the products.

Zinc nitrate and hydrogen.
6.

Sulfuric acid reacts with sodium carbonate. Write the balanced symbol equation.

H₂SO₄ + Na₂CO₃ → Na₂SO₄ + CO₂ + H₂O.

C3.3g Use and explain the terms dilute and concentrated (amount of substance) and weak and strong (degree of ionisation) in relation to acids (Higher Tier only)

1.

What is meant by a concentrated acid?

An acid containing a large amount of dissolved acid per unit volume.
2.

What is meant by a dilute acid?

An acid containing a small amount of dissolved acid per unit volume.
3.

What is meant by a strong acid?

An acid that completely ionises in water.
4.

What is meant by a weak acid?

An acid that only partially ionises in water.
5.

Which contains more acid particles per unit volume: a concentrated acid or a dilute acid?

A concentrated acid.
6.

A solution of ethanoic acid and a solution of hydrochloric acid have the same concentration. Explain why hydrochloric acid has the lower pH.

Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid, so it completely ionises and produces a higher concentration of H⁺ ions than ethanoic acid at the same concentration.

C3.3h Recall that relative acidity and alkalinity are measured by pH

1.

What scale is used to measure acidity and alkalinity?

The pH scale.
2.

What pH value is neutral?

pH 7.
3.

Is a solution with pH 3 acidic or alkaline?

Acidic.
4.

Is a solution with pH 11 acidic or alkaline?

Alkaline.
5.

Which solution is more acidic: pH 2 or pH 5?

pH 2.
6.

A solution has a pH of 8. Describe its acidity or alkalinity.

It is slightly alkaline.

C3.3i Describe neutrality and relative acidity and alkalinity in terms of the effect of the concentration of hydrogen ions on the numerical value of pH (whole numbers only)

1.

What is the pH of a neutral solution?

pH 7.
2.

What happens to pH as the concentration of hydrogen ions increases?

The pH decreases.
3.

Which solution has the higher hydrogen ion concentration: pH 2 or pH 4?

pH 2.
4.

Which solution has the lower hydrogen ion concentration: pH 11 or pH 9?

pH 9.
5.

A solution changes from pH 7 to pH 3. Has the hydrogen ion concentration increased or decreased?

Increased.
6.

Explain why a solution with pH 1 is more acidic than a solution with pH 4.

A solution with pH 1 has a higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with pH 4.

C3.3j Use the idea that as hydrogen ion concentration increases by a factor of ten, the pH value of a solution decreases by one

1.

By what factor does hydrogen ion concentration change when pH decreases by one?

By a factor of 10.
2.

A solution changes from pH 6 to pH 5. How has the hydrogen ion concentration changed?

It has increased by a factor of 10.
3.

A solution changes from pH 4 to pH 2. By what factor has the hydrogen ion concentration changed?

It has increased by a factor of 100.
4.

Which has the greater hydrogen ion concentration: pH 3 or pH 6?

pH 3.
5.

A solution has a hydrogen ion concentration ten times greater than another solution. How do their pH values differ?

Their pH values differ by 1.
6.

Solution A has pH 2 and solution B has pH 5. How many times greater is the hydrogen ion concentration in solution A?

1000 times greater.

C3.3k Describe techniques and apparatus used to measure pH

1.

What indicator gives a full range of pH colours?

Universal indicator.
2.

What instrument gives the most accurate measurement of pH?

A pH meter.
3.

What colour is universal indicator in a neutral solution?

Green.
4.

Why is a pH meter more accurate than universal indicator?

It gives a numerical pH value rather than relying on colour comparison.
5.

Which method would you use to measure the pH of a colourless solution to two decimal places?

A pH meter.
6.

A student needs to compare the pH of several unknown solutions accurately. Explain which apparatus they should use and why.

Use a calibrated pH meter because it provides accurate numerical pH readings for direct comparison.

C3.4a Recall that metals (or hydrogen) are formed at the cathode and non-metals are formed at the anode in electrolysis using inert electrodes

1.

What is formed at the cathode during electrolysis using inert electrodes?

Metals or hydrogen.
2.

What is formed at the anode during electrolysis using inert electrodes?

Non-metals.
3.

What is a positive ion called?

A cation.
4.

What is a negative ion called?

An anion.
5.

Molten lead bromide is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which product forms at the cathode?

Lead.
6.

Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Which product forms at the anode?

Chlorine.

C3.4b Predict the products of electrolysis of binary ionic compounds in the molten state

1.

Why must a binary ionic compound be molten before it can be electrolysed?

So the ions are free to move and carry charge.
2.

What are the products of electrolysis of molten sodium chloride?

Sodium and chlorine.
3.

What are the products of electrolysis of molten lead bromide?

Lead and bromine.
4.

What are the products of electrolysis of molten magnesium oxide?

Magnesium and oxygen.
5.

Molten potassium bromide is electrolysed. Predict the product at each electrode.

Cathode: potassium; anode: bromine.
6.

Molten aluminium oxide is electrolysed. Predict the product at the cathode and the product at the anode.

Cathode: aluminium; anode: oxygen.

C3.4c Describe competing reactions in the electrolysis of aqueous solutions of ionic compounds in terms of the different species present

1.

What does the term competing reactions mean in electrolysis?

More than one ion can be discharged at an electrode.
2.

Why do competing reactions occur during the electrolysis of aqueous ionic solutions?

Because the solution contains ions from both the dissolved ionic compound and water.
3.

During the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride using inert electrodes, which gas is produced at the cathode?

Hydrogen.
4.

During the electrolysis of aqueous copper(II) sulfate using inert electrodes, which metal is produced at the cathode?

Copper.
5.

Aqueous sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Predict the product at the anode.

Chlorine.
6.

Explain why different products are formed during the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride and aqueous sodium chloride.

Molten sodium chloride contains only Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions, whereas aqueous sodium chloride also contains H⁺ and OH⁻ ions from water, so different ions compete for discharge.

C3.4d Describe electrolysis in terms of the ions present and reactions at the electrodes

1.

What happens to positive ions at the cathode?

They gain electrons.
2.

What happens to negative ions at the anode?

They lose electrons.
3.

What is a half equation?

An equation showing the reaction at one electrode.
4.

Write the half equation for the formation of sodium during the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride.

Na⁺ + e⁻ → Na.
5.

Write the half equation for the formation of chlorine during the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride.

2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻.
6.

Copper(II) sulfate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes. Write the half equation for the reaction at the cathode.

Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu.

C3.4e Describe the technique of electrolysis using inert and non-inert electrodes

1.

What is an inert electrode?

An electrode that does not react during electrolysis.
2.

Give one example of an inert electrode.

Graphite or platinum.
3.

What is a non-inert electrode?

An electrode that takes part in the reaction.
4.

Why does an inert electrode not react during electrolysis?

Because it is chemically unreactive.
5.

Why can a non-inert electrode change during electrolysis?

Because it reacts or dissolves as part of the electrolysis process.
6.

Copper is purified by electrolysis using copper electrodes. Explain why a non-inert electrode is used instead of an inert electrode.

A non-inert copper electrode replaces the copper ions removed from the solution, allowing copper to be purified.

Paper 2

C4: Predicting and identifying reactions and products

C4.1a Recall the simple properties of Groups 1, 7 and 0

1.

What are the Group 1 elements called?

Alkali metals.
2.

What are the Group 7 elements called?

Halogens.
3.

Why are the Group 0 elements also known as the noble gases?

Because they have full outer electron shells and are very unreactive.
4.

State one physical property of Group 1 metals.

They are soft.
5.

A student places sodium in water. Describe what is observed.

The sodium floats, moves on the surface, fizzes and may melt into a ball.
6.

Chlorine gas is bubbled through potassium iodide solution. Predict what happens.

Chlorine displaces iodine, so iodine is produced.

C4.1b Explain how observed simple properties of Groups 1, 7 and 0 depend on the outer shell of electrons of the atoms and predict properties from given trends down the groups

1.

How many electrons are in the outer shell of a Group 1 atom?

One.
2.

How many electrons are in the outer shell of a Group 7 atom?

Seven.
3.

Why do Group 1 metals become more reactive down the group?

The outer electron is further from the nucleus and is lost more easily.
4.

Why do Group 7 halogens become less reactive down the group?

They gain electrons less easily as the outer shell is further from the nucleus.
5.

Which is more reactive: potassium or sodium? Explain your answer.

Potassium, because Group 1 reactivity increases down the group.
6.

Predict whether bromine or chlorine is more likely to gain an electron, and explain why.

Chlorine, because Group 7 reactivity decreases down the group.

C4.1c Recall the general properties of transition metals and their compounds and exemplify these by reference to a small number of transition metals

1.

Name one general property of transition metals.

They can act as catalysts.
2.

Compared with Group 1 metals, do transition metals have a higher or lower density?

Higher.
3.

Why are many transition metal compounds coloured?

Because transition metal ions absorb and reflect different wavelengths of light.
4.

Give one use of transition metals as catalysts.

Iron in the Haber process or nickel in hydrogenation.
5.

Iron is used to make bridges instead of sodium. Explain why.

Iron is much stronger and less reactive than sodium.
6.

Copper(II) sulfate solution is blue. What does this tell you about transition metal compounds?

Many transition metal compounds are coloured.

C4.1d Predict possible reactions and probable reactivity of elements from their positions in the Periodic Table

1.

What information can the position of an element in the Periodic Table provide?

Its likely chemical properties and reactivity.
2.

Which is more reactive: a Group 1 metal or a Group 0 element?

A Group 1 metal.
3.

Predict whether calcium will react more vigorously with water than magnesium.

Calcium.
4.

Predict whether fluorine or iodine is more reactive.

Fluorine.
5.

An unknown element is below sodium in Group 1. Predict how its reactivity compares with sodium.

It will be more reactive than sodium.
6.

An unknown element is below bromine in Group 7. Predict how its reactivity compares with bromine and explain your answer.

It will be less reactive than bromine because Group 7 reactivity decreases down the group.

C4.1e Explain how the reactivity of metals with water or dilute acids is related to the tendency of the metal to form its positive ion

1.

Why do metals react?

By losing electrons to form positive ions.
2.

What happens to a metal atom when it forms a positive ion?

It loses electrons.
3.

Why are more reactive metals more likely to react with dilute acids?

They lose electrons more easily to form positive ions.
4.

Why do more reactive metals react more vigorously with water?

They lose electrons more easily, so they react more readily.
5.

Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid faster than copper. Explain why.

Magnesium is more reactive because it forms positive ions more readily than copper.
6.

Potassium reacts violently with water, whereas silver does not react. Explain this difference in terms of the tendency to form positive ions.

Potassium has a much greater tendency to form positive ions than silver, so it reacts vigorously whereas silver does not.

C4.1f Deduce an order of reactivity of metals based on experimental results

1.

What is a reactivity series?

A list of metals arranged in order of reactivity.
2.

What does it mean if one metal displaces another from its compound?

It is more reactive.
3.

Zinc displaces copper from copper sulfate solution. Which metal is more reactive?

Zinc.
4.

Copper does not displace magnesium from magnesium sulfate solution. Which metal is more reactive?

Magnesium.
5.

A metal reacts vigorously with dilute acid, while another reacts only slowly. Which is higher in the reactivity series?

The metal that reacts vigorously with dilute acid.
6.

Metal X displaces Y, Y displaces Z, and Z does not displace X. Deduce the order of reactivity of X, Y and Z.

X > Y > Z.

C4.2a Describe tests to identify selected gases

1.

Which gas relights a glowing splint?

Oxygen.
2.

Which gas produces a squeaky pop with a lit splint?

Hydrogen.
3.

What observation shows that carbon dioxide is present when bubbled through limewater?

Limewater turns milky (cloudy).
4.

Explain why chlorine gas bleaches damp blue litmus paper.

Chlorine bleaches damp blue litmus paper white.
5.

A colourless gas relights a glowing splint. Identify the gas.

Oxygen.
6.

A colourless gas turns limewater milky. Identify the gas.

Carbon dioxide.

C4.2b Describe tests to identify aqueous cations and aqueous anions

1.

Which reagent is used to test for aqueous metal cations?

Sodium hydroxide solution.
2.

Which reagent is used to test for chloride, bromide and iodide ions?

Acidified silver nitrate solution.
3.

Which reagent is used to test for sulfate ions?

Acidified barium chloride solution.
4.

Explain why dilute acid is added before testing for sulfate ions.

To remove carbonate ions that could otherwise produce a false positive result.
5.

A white precipitate forms when sodium hydroxide is added to a solution. The precipitate dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide. Identify the cation.

Aluminium ions (Al³⁺).
6.

What does a cream colour precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate indicate?

A cream precipitate with aqueous silver nitrate indicates the presence of bromide ions (Br⁻).

C4.2c Describe how to perform a flame test

1.

Why is hydrochloric acid used to clean the wire before a flame test?

To remove contaminants.
2.

Which part of the flame should the sample be placed in?

The edge of the blue flame.
3.

Why must the wire be cleaned before testing another sample?

To prevent contamination affecting the next result.
4.

Explain why a clean nichrome wire is used in flame tests.

It does not produce its own flame colour and prevents contamination.
5.

Describe how to carry out a flame test on an unknown solid.

Clean the nichrome wire with hydrochloric acid, dip it into the sample, then place it in the edge of a blue Bunsen flame and observe the flame colour.
6.

A student forgets to clean the wire between tests. Explain how this could affect the results.

Contamination could produce the wrong flame colour, leading to an incorrect identification.

C4.2d Identify species from test results

1.

What does a white precipitate with acidified silver nitrate indicate?

Chloride ions.
2.

What does a green precipitate with sodium hydroxide indicate?

Iron(II) ions.
3.

What does a white precipitate with acidified barium chloride indicate?

Sulfate ions.
4.

Explain what a light blue precipitate with sodium hydroxide shows.

Copper(II) ions are present.
5.

A solution gives a brown precipitate with sodium hydroxide. Identify the cation.

Iron(III) ions.
6.

A solution gives a white precipitate with acidified barium chloride. Identify the anion.

Sulfate ions.

C4.2e Interpret flame tests to identify metal ions

1.

Which metal ion produces a yellow flame?

Sodium.
2.

Which metal ion produces a lilac flame?

Potassium.
3.

Which metal ion produces a brick-red flame?

Calcium.
4.

Explain how flame tests are used to identify metal ions.

The flame colour is compared with known flame colours to identify the metal ion.
5.

A flame test produces a crimson-red flame. Identify the metal ion.

Lithium.
6.

An unknown sample produces a blue-green flame. Identify the metal ion.

Copper.

C4.2f Describe the advantages of instrumental methods of analysis

1.

Name one advantage of instrumental methods of analysis.

They are more accurate.
2.

Which is generally more accurate: chemical tests or instrumental methods?

Instrumental methods.
3.

Why are instrumental methods more sensitive than simple chemical tests?

They can detect much smaller quantities of substances.
4.

Explain why instrumental methods are often preferred in industry.

They are faster, more accurate and more sensitive than simple chemical tests.
5.

A sample contains a very small amount of an impurity. Explain why an instrumental method is more suitable than a simple chemical test.

An instrumental method can detect very small amounts of impurity that chemical tests may miss.
6.

A laboratory needs to analyse hundreds of samples quickly. Explain why instrumental methods are the best choice.

Instrumental methods are fast and can process many samples accurately in a short time.

C4.2g Interpret an instrumental result given appropriate data in chart or tabular form, when accompanied by a reference set of data in the same form

1.

Which instrumental technique uses a mass spectrum?

Mass spectrometry.
2.

What does the highest peak on a mass spectrum usually represent?

The molecular ion.
3.

What information can a reference mass spectrum provide?

It provides known spectra for comparison.
4.

Explain how a mass spectrum can be used to identify an unknown substance.

Compare the unknown spectrum with reference spectra and find the closest match.
5.

A mass spectrum matches the reference spectrum for methane. Identify the unknown substance.

Methane.
6.

An unknown sample produces a mass spectrum identical to a reference sample. What conclusion can be made about the identity of the sample?

The unknown sample is the same substance as the reference sample.

C5: Monitoring and controlling chemical reactions

C5.1a Explain how the concentration of a solution in mol/dm³ is related to the mass of the solute and the volume of the solution

1.

What is meant by the concentration of a solution?

The amount of solute dissolved per unit volume of solution.
2.

What is the unit of concentration used in chemistry?

mol/dm³.
3.

Explain how increasing the mass of solute affects the concentration if the volume stays the same.

The concentration increases.
4.

Explain how increasing the volume of solution affects the concentration if the mass of solute stays the same.

The concentration decreases.
5.

A solution contains 2.0 mol of sodium chloride in 0.50 dm³ of solution. Calculate the concentration.

4.0 mol/dm³.
6.

A solution has a concentration of 0.40 mol/dm³ and a volume of 0.25 dm³. Calculate the amount of solute in moles.

0.10 mol.

C5.1b Describe the technique of titration

1.

What piece of apparatus is used to accurately deliver the acid during a titration?

A burette.
2.

Why is an indicator added during a titration?

To show the end point of the reaction.
3.

Explain why the conical flask is swirled while carrying out a titration.

To mix the solutions thoroughly.
4.

Explain why the burette reading should be recorded before and after the titration.

To calculate the volume of solution delivered.
5.

Describe the steps needed to carry out an acid–alkali titration.

Fill the burette with one solution, measure a fixed volume of the other with a pipette into a conical flask, add indicator, add solution from the burette until the end point, then record the titre.
6.

A student overshoots the end point during a titration. Explain why the result should not be used.

The titre is inaccurate because too much solution has been added beyond the end point.

C5.1c Explain the relationship between the volume of a solution of known concentration of a substance and the volume or concentration of another substance that react completely together

1.

What is the purpose of a titration?

To determine the concentration of an unknown solution.
2.

What does it mean if two substances react completely together?

They react in the exact proportions shown by the balanced equation.
3.

Explain why the balanced equation is needed for titration calculations.

It provides the correct mole ratio between the reactants.
4.

Explain why knowing the concentration of one solution allows the concentration of another to be found.

The known concentration allows the number of moles reacting to be calculated, which can then be used to find the unknown concentration.
5.

25.0 cm³ of hydrochloric acid completely neutralises 25.0 cm³ of sodium hydroxide of concentration 0.10 mol/dm³. Calculate the concentration of the hydrochloric acid.

0.10 mol/dm³.
6.

A titration shows that 20.0 cm³ of sodium hydroxide reacts exactly with 10.0 cm³ of sulfuric acid. The sodium hydroxide concentration is known. Explain how the sulfuric acid concentration can be determined.

Calculate the moles of sodium hydroxide, use the balanced equation to find the moles of sulfuric acid, then calculate its concentration using its volume.

C5.1d Describe the relationship between molar amounts of gases and their volumes and vice versa

1.

What volume does 1 mole of any gas occupy at room temperature and pressure?

24 dm³.
2.

What is the unit used for molar gas volume?

dm³/mol.
3.

Explain why equal numbers of moles of different gases occupy the same volume at room temperature and pressure.

Because equal numbers of gas particles occupy the same volume at the same temperature and pressure.
4.

Explain how the number of moles of a gas can be found from its volume.

Moles = volume ÷ 24.
5.

Calculate the number of moles in 48 dm³ of oxygen at room temperature and pressure.

2 mol.
6.

A sample contains 0.50 mol of carbon dioxide. Calculate its volume at room temperature and pressure.

12 dm³.

C5.1e Calculate the volumes of gases involved in reactions using the molar gas volume at room temperature and pressure (assumed to be 24 dm³)

1.

What molar gas volume should be used in GCSE calculations?

24 dm³/mol.
2.

What volume is occupied by 2 moles of gas at room temperature and pressure?

48 dm³.
3.

Explain why balanced equations are needed before calculating gas volumes.

To give the correct mole ratios.
4.

Explain how mole ratios are used to calculate gas volumes.

Use the mole ratio from the balanced equation to determine the gas volume.
5.

Calcium carbonate produces 0.50 mol of carbon dioxide. Calculate the volume of gas produced at room temperature and pressure.

12 dm³.
6.

48 dm³ of hydrogen reacts with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride. Calculate the volume of hydrogen chloride produced.

48 dm³.

C5.1f Explain how the mass of a solute and the volume of the solution is related to the concentration of the solution

1.

What happens to the concentration if more solute is dissolved in the same volume?

It increases.
2.

What happens to the concentration if more water is added to a solution?

It decreases.
3.

Explain why doubling the volume of a solution halves its concentration if no solute is added.

The same amount of solute is spread through twice the volume.
4.

Explain why concentration depends on both the amount of solute and the volume of solution.

Because concentration depends on both the amount of solute and the volume of solution.
5.

A solution contains 10 g of solute in 250 cm³ of solution. Another contains 10 g in 500 cm³. Which is more concentrated?

The solution containing 10 g in 250 cm³.
6.

Two solutions contain the same mass of solute. Solution A has half the volume of Solution B. Compare their concentrations.

Solution A is twice as concentrated as Solution B.

C5.1g Calculate the theoretical mass of a product from a given mass of reactant

1.

What is meant by the theoretical yield?

The maximum mass of product that can be formed from the reactants.
2.

Why is a balanced equation needed to calculate theoretical yield?

To provide the correct mole ratio between reactants and products.
3.

Explain why the amount of reactant affects the theoretical yield.

More reactant produces more product, provided another reactant is not limiting.
4.

Explain why the relative formula masses must be used in theoretical yield calculations.

They are used to convert between mass and moles.
5.

Calculate the theoretical mass of magnesium oxide produced from 2.4 g of magnesium.

4.0 g.
6.

A reaction has a theoretical yield of 16 g of product. Explain how this value is determined.

It is calculated using the balanced equation and assuming the reaction goes to completion with no losses.

C5.1h Calculate the percentage yield of a reaction product from the actual yield of a reaction

1.

What is meant by percentage yield?

The percentage of the theoretical yield actually obtained.
2.

What is meant by the actual yield?

The amount of product actually produced.
3.

Explain why the percentage yield is usually less than 100%.

Some reactants may not react, products may be lost, or reversible reactions may not go to completion.
4.

Explain the difference between actual yield and theoretical yield.

Theoretical yield is the maximum possible yield; actual yield is the amount obtained experimentally.
5.

A reaction has a theoretical yield of 20 g and an actual yield of 15 g. Calculate the percentage yield.

75%.
6.

A reaction has a percentage yield of 80%. If the theoretical yield is 50 g, calculate the actual yield.

40 g.

C5.1i Define the atom economy of a reaction

1.

What is atom economy?

A measure of how much of the reactants end up in the desired product.
2.

Why is a high atom economy desirable?

It produces less waste.
3.

Explain why reactions with a low atom economy produce more waste.

More atoms end up in unwanted products.
4.

Explain why atom economy is important in industry.

It helps reduce waste and improve sustainability.
5.

Which reaction is likely to be more sustainable: one with an atom economy of 95% or 45%?

The reaction with an atom economy of 95%.
6.

Explain why manufacturers aim to use reactions with a high atom economy.

It reduces waste, saves raw materials and lowers costs.

C5.1j Calculate the atom economy of a reaction to form a desired product from the balanced equation

1.

What information is needed to calculate atom economy?

The balanced equation and the relative formula masses.
2.

Why must the chemical equation be balanced before calculating atom economy?

To give the correct proportions of reactants and products.
3.

Explain why relative formula masses are used in atom economy calculations.

They represent the masses of the substances involved.
4.

Explain why unwanted products reduce atom economy.

They reduce the proportion of atoms ending up in the desired product.
5.

Calculate the atom economy for the reaction: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (desired product: CaO).

56%.
6.

A reaction produces one desired product and one unwanted product. Calculate the atom economy using the balanced equation.

Atom economy = (Mr of desired product ÷ total Mr of products) × 100.

C5.1k Explain why a particular reaction pathway is chosen to produce a specified product given appropriate data

1.

Name one factor that may be considered when choosing a reaction pathway.

Percentage yield.
2.

What is meant by the term reaction pathway?

The method used to produce a product.
3.

Explain why a reaction with a high percentage yield may be chosen.

It produces more useful product.
4.

Explain why a reaction with a high atom economy is often preferred.

It reduces waste and makes better use of raw materials.
5.

Two reaction pathways produce the same product. One has a higher atom economy but a lower rate. Suggest which may be chosen if reducing waste is the priority.

The pathway with the higher atom economy.
6.

Given data for two reaction pathways including yield, atom economy, reaction rate and useful by-products, decide which pathway should be chosen and justify your answer.

Choose the pathway that best meets the priority (e.g. highest yield, highest atom economy, fastest rate or most useful by-products), supported by the data provided.

C5.2a Suggest practical methods for determining the rate of a given reaction

1.

What is meant by the rate of a chemical reaction?

The amount of reactant used or product formed per unit time.
2.

Name one practical method used to measure the rate of a reaction.

Measure the volume of gas produced.
3.

Explain how measuring the volume of gas produced can determine the rate of a reaction.

Measure the volume of gas produced at regular time intervals.
4.

Explain how measuring the loss of mass can determine the rate of a reaction.

Measure the decrease in mass as gas escapes.
5.

Suggest a suitable method to measure the rate of a reaction that produces carbon dioxide gas.

Measure the volume of carbon dioxide produced using a gas syringe.
6.

A reaction forms an insoluble precipitate. Suggest the most suitable method to measure its rate.

Use the disappearing cross method, measuring the time taken for the precipitate to obscure the cross.

C5.2b Interpret rate of reaction graphs

1.

What does the gradient of a rate graph represent?

The rate of reaction.
2.

What does a horizontal section on a rate graph show?

The reaction has finished.
3.

Explain why the gradient becomes less steep as a reaction proceeds.

The reactants are being used up, so there are fewer successful collisions.
4.

Explain why a reaction stops increasing in mass loss after a certain time.

No more gas is being produced because the limiting reactant has been used up.
5.

A graph shows a steeper initial gradient than another graph. Which reaction has the faster initial rate?

The reaction with the steeper initial gradient.
6.

Two reactions produce the same final volume of gas, but one graph is steeper. Compare the two reactions.

They have the same total amount of product, but the steeper graph shows a faster reaction.

C5.2c Describe the effect of changes in temperature, concentration, pressure and surface area on rate of reaction

1.

What happens to the rate of reaction when temperature increases?

The rate increases.
2.

What happens to the rate of reaction when the concentration of a solution increases?

The rate increases.
3.

Explain why increasing the surface area of a solid increases the rate of reaction.

More particles are exposed, leading to more frequent collisions.
4.

Explain why increasing the pressure of a reacting gas increases the rate of reaction.

Gas particles are closer together, so collisions occur more frequently.
5.

Powdered calcium carbonate reacts faster with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Explain why.

The powder has a larger surface area to volume ratio, so it reacts faster.
6.

A gas reaction is carried out at twice the original pressure. Predict the effect on the rate of reaction.

The reaction rate increases because collisions between gas particles occur more frequently.

C5.2d Explain the effects on rates of reaction of changes in temperature, concentration and pressure in terms of frequency and energy of collision between particles

1.

What is meant by a successful collision?

A collision with enough energy to react.
2.

What is activation energy?

The minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur.
3.

Explain why increasing temperature increases the frequency of successful collisions.

Particles move faster and more have enough energy to overcome the activation energy.
4.

Explain why increasing concentration increases the rate of reaction.

There are more particles in a given volume, so collisions occur more frequently.
5.

Explain why increasing the pressure of reacting gases increases the rate of reaction.

Gas particles are closer together, increasing the frequency of collisions.
6.

A reaction is heated from 20°C to 40°C. Explain why the reaction becomes faster using collision theory.

Heating increases particle energy and the number of successful collisions, so the reaction rate increases.

C5.2e Explain the effects on rates of reaction of changes in the size of the pieces of a reacting solid in terms of surface area to volume ratio

1.

What is meant by surface area to volume ratio?

The amount of surface area compared with the volume.
2.

Which has the larger surface area to volume ratio: a powder or a large lump?

A powder.
3.

Explain why powdered solids react faster than large pieces.

They have a larger surface area to volume ratio, so there are more frequent collisions.
4.

Explain how surface area affects the number of collisions.

A larger surface area exposes more particles for collisions.
5.

Calcium carbonate powder reacts faster than marble chips with acid. Explain why.

The powder has a larger surface area to volume ratio, so there are more successful collisions each second.
6.

A student crushes zinc granules before reacting them with hydrochloric acid. Explain the effect on the reaction rate.

Crushing the zinc increases its surface area, increasing the rate of reaction.

C5.2f Describe the characteristics of catalysts and their effect on rates of reaction

1.

What is a catalyst?

A substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being used up.
2.

Is a catalyst used up during a chemical reaction?

No.
3.

Explain how a catalyst affects the rate of reaction.

It increases the reaction rate by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy.
4.

Explain why a catalyst can be used repeatedly.

Because it is not used up during the reaction.
5.

Manganese(IV) oxide is added to hydrogen peroxide. Explain its role.

It acts as a catalyst, speeding up the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
6.

A reaction is too slow for industrial use. Explain how adding a catalyst could solve this problem.

A catalyst lowers the activation energy, increasing the reaction rate to a practical level for industry.

C5.2g Identify catalysts in reactions

1.

What is the catalyst used in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?

Manganese(IV) oxide (MnO₂).
2.

How can you identify the catalyst in a chemical equation?

It is written above or below the reaction arrow.
3.

Explain why the catalyst is not included as a reactant or product in the overall equation.

Because it is not used up during the reaction.
4.

Explain why a catalyst has the same mass before and after a reaction.

It has the same mass before and after the reaction because it is regenerated.
5.

In the reaction 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂, manganese(IV) oxide is added. Identify the catalyst.

Manganese(IV) oxide (MnO₂).
6.

A reaction mixture contains zinc, sulfuric acid and copper powder. Identify the catalyst.

Copper powder.

C5.2h Explain catalytic action in terms of activation energy

1.

What is activation energy?

The minimum energy needed for particles to react.
2.

What effect does a catalyst have on activation energy?

It lowers the activation energy.
3.

Explain why lowering the activation energy increases the reaction rate.

More particles have enough energy for successful collisions.
4.

Explain why a catalyst does not change the overall energy change of a reaction.

Because a catalyst only changes the reaction pathway, not the energy difference between reactants and products.
5.

Draw or describe how the reaction profile changes when a catalyst is used.

The activation energy peak is lower, but the reactant and product energy levels stay the same.
6.

A catalyst is added to an exothermic reaction. Explain why the reaction becomes faster even though the energy released stays the same.

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, increasing the rate of reaction without changing the overall energy change.

C5.2i Recall that enzymes act as catalysts in biological systems

1.

What type of molecule is an enzyme?

Biological catalysts.
2.

What is the role of an enzyme in a biological reaction?

They speed up chemical reactions in living organisms.
3.

Explain why enzymes are described as biological catalysts.

Proteins.
4.

Explain why enzymes are not used up during the reactions they catalyse.

They lower the activation energy.
5.

Amylase speeds up the breakdown of starch. Identify the role of amylase.

Amylase.
6.

Explain why a reaction in a living cell would be too slow without enzymes.

Enzymes catalyse reactions in living organisms by providing an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy and are not used up in the process.

C5.3a Recall that some reactions may be reversed by altering the reaction conditions

1.

What is a reversible reaction?

A reaction that can proceed in both the forward and reverse directions.
2.

What symbol is used to represent a reversible reaction?

3.

Explain how a reversible reaction differs from an irreversible reaction.

A reversible reaction can go in both directions, whereas an irreversible reaction only goes in one direction.
4.

Explain why some reactions can proceed in both directions.

Because the products can react together to reform the reactants under suitable conditions.
5.

A reaction reaches equilibrium. Explain what could happen if the temperature is changed.

Changing the temperature may change the position of equilibrium, favouring either the forward or reverse reaction.
6.

A reversible reaction is heated. Predict whether the reaction can continue in the reverse direction.

Yes. Heating may favour the reverse reaction, so the reaction can continue in the reverse direction.

C5.3b Recall that dynamic equilibrium occurs in a closed system when the rates of forward and reverse reactions are equal

1.

What is meant by dynamic equilibrium?

A state where the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.
2.

In what type of system can dynamic equilibrium be established?

A closed system.
3.

Explain what is happening to the forward and reverse reactions at dynamic equilibrium.

Both reactions continue, but at equal rates.
4.

Explain why the concentrations of reactants and products remain constant at equilibrium.

Because they are being formed and used up at the same rate.
5.

A reaction is at dynamic equilibrium in a sealed flask. Explain what happens to the reactants and products over time.

The amounts of reactants and products remain constant because the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate.
6.

A student says, "The reaction has stopped because equilibrium has been reached." Explain why this statement is incorrect.

The reaction has not stopped; both the forward and reverse reactions are still occurring at equal rates.

C5.3c Predict the effect of changing reaction conditions on equilibrium position and suggest appropriate conditions to produce as much of a particular product as possible

1.

What happens to the position of equilibrium if the concentration of a reactant is increased?

The equilibrium shifts to the right (towards the products).
2.

What happens to the position of equilibrium if a product is removed?

The equilibrium shifts to the right to replace the removed product.
3.

Explain why increasing the concentration of a reactant shifts the equilibrium position.

The system opposes the change by using up some of the added reactant to make more products.
4.

Explain how changing the temperature can affect the position of equilibrium.

Changing the temperature shifts the equilibrium in the direction that opposes the temperature change.
5.

A reversible reaction is exothermic in the forward direction. Predict the effect of decreasing the temperature on the yield of products.

Decreasing the temperature increases the yield of products because the forward reaction is exothermic.
6.

A reversible reaction produces fewer moles of gas on the product side than on the reactant side. Predict the effect of increasing the pressure and explain your answer.

Increasing the pressure shifts the equilibrium towards the products because there are fewer moles of gas on the product side.

C6 Global Challenges

C6.1a Explain, using the position of carbon in the reactivity series, the principles of industrial processes used to extract metals, including extraction of a non-ferrous metal

1.

Where is carbon positioned in the reactivity series compared with iron?

Carbon is more reactive than iron, zinc, tin and copper, but less reactive than aluminium, magnesium, sodium and potassium.
2.

Which metals can be extracted from their ores using carbon?

Metals below carbon in the reactivity series can be extracted from their ores using carbon.
3.

Explain why carbon can be used to extract iron from iron oxide.

Carbon removes oxygen from iron oxide (reduction) because carbon is more reactive than iron.
4.

Explain why carbon cannot be used to extract aluminium from aluminium oxide.

Aluminium cannot be extracted using carbon because aluminium is more reactive than carbon and forms a more stable oxide.
5.

Copper oxide is heated with carbon. Predict the products of the reaction.

Copper oxide + carbon → copper + carbon dioxide (or carbon monoxide if oxygen is limited).
6.

Explain why zinc can be extracted using carbon but sodium cannot.

Zinc can be extracted using carbon because it is below carbon in the reactivity series, whereas sodium is above carbon and must be extracted by electrolysis.

C6.1b Explain why and how electrolysis is used to extract some metals from their ores

1.

Which metals must be extracted using electrolysis?

Metals more reactive than carbon must be extracted using electrolysis.
2.

Why is electrolysis needed to extract aluminium?

Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis because carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide.
3.

Explain why carbon cannot extract metals above it in the reactivity series.

Carbon cannot extract metals above it in the reactivity series because they have a greater affinity for oxygen than carbon.
4.

Explain how electrolysis extracts aluminium from aluminium oxide.

Electrolysis passes an electric current through molten aluminium oxide, causing aluminium ions to gain electrons at the cathode.
5.

Aluminium oxide is electrolysed. Identify the product formed at the cathode.

Aluminium metal is produced at the negative electrode (cathode).
6.

Explain why electrolysis is used instead of carbon to extract sodium.

Sodium is extracted by electrolysis because it is more reactive than carbon.

C6.1c Evaluate alternative biological methods of metal extraction

1.

What is meant by bioleaching?

Bioleaching uses bacteria to produce solutions containing metal ions from low-grade ores.
2.

What is meant by phytomining?

Phytomining uses plants to absorb metal ions through their roots.
3.

Explain how bacteria are used in bioleaching.

In bioleaching, bacteria break down metal compounds, releasing metal ions into solution.
4.

Explain how plants are used in phytomining.

In phytomining, plants are harvested and burned, then the metal is extracted from the ash.
5.

Suggest one advantage of phytomining over traditional mining.

One advantage of phytomining is that it causes less environmental damage than traditional mining and can be used on low-grade ores.
6.

A low-grade copper ore is available. Evaluate whether bioleaching or carbon extraction is the better method.

Bioleaching is generally the better method for low-grade copper ores because it is economical for poor-quality ores, although it is slower than carbon extraction.

C6.1d Explain the trade-off between rate of production of a desired product and position of equilibrium in some industrially important processes

1.

What is meant by a trade-off in an industrial process?

A trade-off is a compromise between competing factors such as reaction rate and product yield.
2.

Name one industrial process that involves a reversible reaction.

The Haber process is an industrial process involving a reversible reaction.
3.

Explain why a higher temperature often increases the reaction rate but decreases the equilibrium yield in the Haber process.

Higher temperatures increase reaction rate but decrease the equilibrium yield of ammonia because the forward reaction is exothermic.
4.

Explain why industries do not always use the conditions that give the highest yield.

Industries do not use the highest-yield conditions because the reaction would be too slow and uneconomical.
5.

Suggest why the Haber process operates at about 450°C instead of a much lower temperature.

The Haber process operates at about 450°C to provide a suitable balance between rate and yield.
6.

Explain why industrial chemists choose compromise conditions for equilibrium reactions.

Industrial chemists choose compromise conditions to maximise profit, productivity and efficiency.

C6.1e Interpret graphs of reaction conditions versus rate

1.

What does a steeper gradient on a rate graph show?

A steeper gradient shows a faster reaction rate.
2.

What happens to the reaction rate when temperature increases?

Increasing temperature generally increases the reaction rate.
3.

Explain how a graph can be used to compare reaction rates at different temperatures.

Graphs are compared by comparing the gradients (slopes) at different temperatures.
4.

Explain why the rate eventually becomes constant or stops increasing.

The reaction rate eventually becomes constant or stops because a reactant is used up.
5.

A graph shows that doubling the pressure increases the reaction rate. Describe the trend shown.

Doubling the pressure increases the reaction rate because gas particles collide more frequently.
6.

A graph compares reaction rate with temperature and equilibrium yield. Determine the best operating temperature and justify your choice.

The best operating temperature is usually a compromise that provides both a reasonably fast reaction rate and an acceptable equilibrium yield.

C6.1f Explain how the commercially used conditions for an industrial process are related to the availability and cost of raw materials and energy supplies, control of equilibrium position and rate

1.

Name one factor considered when choosing industrial reaction conditions.

One factor is the cost of energy, availability of raw materials, reaction rate or equilibrium yield.
2.

Why is the cost of energy important in industrial chemistry?

Energy cost is important because higher temperatures and pressures require more energy and increase production costs.
3.

Explain why industries aim to balance reaction rate with energy costs.

Industries balance reaction rate with energy costs to maximise profit.
4.

Explain why the availability of raw materials affects industrial processes.

Raw materials must be available and affordable for continuous production.
5.

A factory can increase the reaction temperature to produce products faster. Suggest one disadvantage of doing this.

Increasing the reaction temperature uses more energy and may reduce the equilibrium yield for exothermic reactions.
6.

An industrial process can operate under two different conditions. One gives a higher yield but uses much more energy. Explain which is likely to be chosen and why.

Industry usually chooses conditions that provide the lowest overall production cost while maintaining an acceptable yield and reaction rate.

C6.1g Explain the importance of the Haber process in agricultural production

1.

What is the main product of the Haber process?

The main product of the Haber process is ammonia.
2.

What is ammonia used to manufacture?

Ammonia is used to manufacture nitrogen fertilisers.
3.

Explain why the Haber process is important for agriculture.

The Haber process is important because it supplies fertilisers needed for modern agriculture.
4.

Explain why nitrogen is essential for plant growth.

Nitrogen is essential for making proteins and healthy plant growth.
5.

Explain how the use of ammonia-based fertilisers increases crop yield.

Ammonia-based fertilisers increase crop yield by replacing nitrogen compounds removed from the soil.
6.

A farmer wants to increase wheat production. Explain why fertilisers made using the Haber process would help.

Fertilisers increase wheat production by improving plant growth and increasing yields.

C6.1h Compare the industrial production of fertilisers with laboratory syntheses of the same products

1.

What is the main aim of industrial fertiliser production?

The main aim of industrial production is to produce large quantities efficiently and economically.
2.

What is the main aim of laboratory synthesis?

The main aim of laboratory synthesis is to prepare small amounts for investigation or teaching.
3.

Explain one difference between industrial and laboratory production of fertilisers.

Industrial production is continuous, highly controlled and large-scale, whereas laboratory synthesis is small-scale and batch-based.
4.

Explain why industrial production is carried out on a much larger scale than laboratory synthesis.

Industry operates on a much larger scale to meet agricultural demand.
5.

Suggest one advantage of industrial fertiliser production over laboratory synthesis.

Industrial production produces fertilisers more quickly and at a lower cost per tonne.
6.

Compare the production of ammonium nitrate in industry with its preparation in a school laboratory.

Industrial ammonium nitrate production is continuous using large reactors, while school laboratory preparation involves small-scale neutralisation and crystallisation.

C6.1i Recall the importance of nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium compounds in agricultural production

1.

Which element in fertilisers is needed for leafy growth?

Nitrogen promotes leafy growth.
2.

Which element in fertilisers is needed for root growth?

Phosphorus promotes root growth.
3.

Explain why potassium compounds are added to fertilisers.

Potassium compounds improve flowering, fruit production and disease resistance.
4.

Explain why NPK fertilisers improve crop production.

NPK fertilisers improve crop production by supplying essential mineral nutrients.
5.

A farmer wants to improve root development in carrot plants. Which nutrient should be increased?

Root development in carrots is improved by increasing phosphorus.
6.

A fertiliser contains nitrogen but no potassium. Suggest one effect this may have on crop growth.

A lack of potassium may result in poor flowering, reduced fruit production and weaker plants.

C6.1j Describe the industrial production of fertilisers as several integrated processes using a variety of raw materials

1.

Name one fertiliser made from ammonia.

One fertiliser made from ammonia is ammonium nitrate.
2.

Name another fertiliser made from ammonia.

Another fertiliser made from ammonia is ammonium sulfate.
3.

Explain why ammonia is an important raw material in fertiliser manufacture.

Ammonia is an important raw material because it supplies nitrogen for fertilisers.
4.

Explain how several industrial processes are linked together to produce fertilisers.

Industrial processes are linked by using ammonia produced in the Haber process to manufacture different fertilisers.
5.

Explain how ammonium nitrate is produced from ammonia.

Ammonium nitrate is produced by reacting ammonia with nitric acid.
6.

Describe how ammonia can be converted into ammonium sulfate in industry.

Ammonium sulfate is produced by reacting ammonia with sulfuric acid.

C6.1k Describe the basic principles in carrying out a life-cycle assessment of a material or product

1.

What is meant by a life-cycle assessment?

A life-cycle assessment (LCA) measures the environmental impact of a product throughout its entire life.
2.

Name one stage included in a life-cycle assessment.

One stage included is raw material extraction, manufacturing, transport, use or disposal.
3.

Explain why transport is included in a life-cycle assessment.

Transport is included because it uses fuel and produces carbon dioxide and other emissions.
4.

Explain why disposal of a product is considered in a life-cycle assessment.

Disposal is included because landfill, incineration or recycling all have environmental impacts.
5.

List the stages that should be considered when carrying out a life-cycle assessment for a plastic bottle.

A plastic bottle LCA includes: raw material extraction → manufacture → transport → use → disposal/recycling.
6.

Explain why a life-cycle assessment is useful when comparing two products.

LCAs are useful because they allow the environmental impacts of different products to be compared objectively.

C6.1l Interpret data from a life-cycle assessment of a material or product

1.

What information does a life-cycle assessment provide?

A life-cycle assessment provides information about the environmental impact at each stage of a product's life.
2.

What does a lower environmental impact indicate in a life-cycle assessment?

A lower environmental impact means the product is more environmentally sustainable.
3.

Explain how life-cycle assessment data can be used to compare two products.

LCA data can be used to compare the total environmental impacts of different products.
4.

Explain why different stages contribute differently to the total environmental impact.

Different stages contribute differently because they use different amounts of energy, raw materials and transport.
5.

A life-cycle assessment shows that transport has the greatest environmental impact. Suggest one way this impact could be reduced.

If transport has the greatest impact, it can be reduced by using local suppliers or reducing transport distances.
6.

Two shopping bags have different life-cycle assessment data. Determine which is more environmentally sustainable and justify your choice.

The more environmentally sustainable shopping bag is the one with the lower overall life-cycle environmental impact.

C6.1m Describe a process where a material or product is recycled for a different use, and explain why this is viable

1.

What is meant by recycling?

Recycling is processing waste materials into new products.
2.

What is meant by recycling a material for a different use?

Recycling for a different use means converting a material into a different type of product.
3.

Explain why recycled materials can be used to make different products.

Recycled materials can be made into different products because they retain many of their useful properties.
4.

Explain why recycling is often economically viable.

Recycling is economically viable because it can reduce raw material and energy costs.
5.

Suggest a different use for recycled glass bottles.

Recycled glass bottles can be used to make road aggregate or glass insulation.
6.

Explain why recycling aluminium cans into bicycle frames may be a viable process.

Recycling aluminium cans into bicycle frames is viable because aluminium is strong, lightweight and much cheaper to recycle than extract from ore.

C6.1n Evaluate factors that affect decisions on recycling

1.

Name one factor that affects whether a material is recycled.

One factor is the cost of recycling.
2.

Why is the cost of recycling important?

Recycling costs are important because recycling should be economically worthwhile.
3.

Explain why energy requirements affect recycling decisions.

High energy requirements may make recycling less environmentally and economically beneficial.
4.

Explain why the availability of recycling facilities affects recycling rates.

Limited recycling facilities reduce recycling rates because materials cannot be processed easily.
5.

A material is difficult to separate from household waste. Explain how this affects the decision to recycle it.

Materials that are difficult to separate are less likely to be recycled because sorting is expensive and time-consuming.
6.

Evaluate whether a material should be recycled if recycling costs more than producing a new material.

If recycling costs more than producing a new material, the environmental benefits must be weighed against the economic costs before deciding whether to recycle.

C6.1o Describe the composition of some important alloys in relation to their properties and uses

1.

What is an alloy?

An alloy is a mixture of a metal with other elements.
2.

Name the main metal in brass.

The main metal in brass is copper.
3.

Explain why alloys are often harder than pure metals.

Alloys are harder than pure metals because the different-sized atoms disrupt the layers, making them harder to slide.
4.

Explain why steel is used instead of pure iron for construction.

Steel is used instead of pure iron because it is stronger and harder.
5.

Suggest why bronze is used for statues instead of pure copper.

Bronze is used for statues because it is hard, durable and resistant to corrosion.
6.

An aircraft requires a material that is both strong and lightweight. Explain why duralumin is a suitable choice.

Duralumin is suitable for aircraft because it is strong, lightweight and corrosion resistant.

C6.1p Describe the process of corrosion and the conditions which cause corrosion

1.

What is corrosion?

Corrosion is the gradual destruction of a metal by chemical reactions with its environment.
2.

Which two substances are needed for iron to rust?

Iron rusts only when oxygen and water are both present.
3.

Explain why iron rusts only when both oxygen and water are present.

Rusting occurs because iron reacts with oxygen in the presence of water to form hydrated iron(III) oxide.
4.

Explain why salt water increases the rate of corrosion.

Salt water increases corrosion because it acts as an electrolyte, speeding up the reaction.
5.

An iron nail is kept in dry air. Predict whether it will rust.

An iron nail kept in dry air will not rust.
6.

Explain why a steel bridge near the sea rusts more quickly than one inland.

A steel bridge near the sea rusts faster because salt water and moist air accelerate corrosion.

C6.1q Explain how mitigation of corrosion is achieved by creating a physical barrier to oxygen and water and by sacrificial protection

1.

Name one method of preventing corrosion by forming a physical barrier.

One physical barrier method is painting, oiling or plastic coating.
2.

What is sacrificial protection?

Sacrificial protection uses a more reactive metal to protect iron or steel.
3.

Explain how painting prevents rusting.

Paint prevents rusting by stopping oxygen and water reaching the iron.
4.

Explain how galvanising protects iron from corrosion.

Galvanising protects iron by coating it with zinc.
5.

A scratch exposes the iron beneath a layer of paint. Explain why rust may form.

If paint is scratched, oxygen and water can reach the iron, allowing rusting to occur.
6.

Explain why zinc continues to protect iron even if the zinc coating is scratched.

Zinc continues protecting iron after scratching because zinc is more reactive than iron and corrodes instead.

C6.1r Compare quantitatively the physical properties of glass and clay ceramics, polymers, composites and metals

1.

Which class of materials generally has the highest electrical conductivity?

Metals generally have the highest electrical conductivity.
2.

Which class of materials is generally the least dense?

Polymers are generally the least dense.
3.

Explain why composites often have better properties than their individual components.

Composites have better properties because they combine the advantages of different materials.
4.

Explain why polymers are generally poorer conductors than metals.

Polymers are poor electrical conductors because they have no free electrons.
5.

Compare the strength and density of a composite and a polymer.

Composites are generally stronger than polymers while remaining relatively lightweight.
6.

A material is needed that is strong, lightweight and resistant to corrosion. Which class of material is most suitable?

A composite is the most suitable material when strength, low density and corrosion resistance are required.

C6.1s Explain how the properties of materials are related to their uses and select appropriate materials given details of the usage required

1.

Which property makes copper suitable for electrical wiring?

Copper is used for electrical wiring because it has high electrical conductivity.
2.

Which property makes glass suitable for windows?

Glass is suitable for windows because it is transparent.
3.

Explain why stainless steel is used for cutlery.

Stainless steel is used for cutlery because it is strong and corrosion resistant.
4.

Explain why polymers are often used for electrical insulation.

Polymers are used for electrical insulation because they are electrical insulators.
5.

Select the most suitable material for making a drinks bottle and justify your choice.

A polymer (e.g. PET) is suitable for a drinks bottle because it is lightweight, waterproof and tough.
6.

A bridge requires a material that is strong, durable and resistant to corrosion. Select the most suitable material and explain your choice.

A bridge should be made from steel because it is strong, durable and resistant to corrosion (when protected appropriately).

C6.2a Recognise functional groups and identify members of the same homologous series

1.

What is a functional group?

A functional group is the part of an organic molecule responsible for its characteristic chemical reactions.
2.

Which functional group is found in alcohols?

Alcohols contain the –OH (hydroxyl) functional group.
3.

Explain what is meant by a homologous series.

A homologous series is a family of compounds with the same functional group, similar chemical properties and the same general formula.
4.

Explain how the functional group identifies the homologous series of an organic compound.

The functional group determines which homologous series an organic compound belongs to.
5.

Which homologous series does CH₃CH₂COOH belong to?

CH₃CH₂COOH belongs to the carboxylic acids homologous series.
6.

A compound contains a carbon–carbon double bond but no other functional groups. Identify its homologous series.

A compound containing a carbon–carbon double bond belongs to the alkenes homologous series.

C6.2b Name and draw the structural formulae, using fully displayed formulae, of the first four members of the straight chain alkanes, alkenes, alcohols and carboxylic acids

1.

What is the name of the third straight-chain alkane?

The third straight-chain alkane is propane.
2.

What is the name of the first carboxylic acid?

The first carboxylic acid is methanoic acid.
3.

Explain how the names of the first four straight-chain alkenes are related to the number of carbon atoms they contain.

The first four straight-chain alkenes are ethene, propene, butene and pentene, with each successive member containing one extra carbon atom.
4.

Explain how the displayed formula of an alcohol shows that it belongs to the alcohol homologous series.

An alcohol displayed formula contains the –OH functional group.
5.

Draw the fully displayed formula of but-1-ene.

But-1-ene: CH₂=CH–CH₂–CH₃.
6.

Draw the fully displayed formula of propanoic acid.

Propanoic acid: CH₃–CH₂–COOH.

C6.2c Predict the formulae and structures of products of reactions of the first four and other given members of the homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alcohols

1.

What are the products of the complete combustion of an alkane?

Complete combustion of an alkane produces carbon dioxide and water.
2.

What is added across the carbon–carbon double bond during the hydrogenation of an alkene?

Hydrogen is added across the carbon–carbon double bond during hydrogenation.
3.

Explain why bromine reacts with alkenes but not alkanes.

Bromine reacts with alkenes because they contain a C=C double bond, but alkanes do not.
4.

Explain how potassium manganate(VII) converts an alcohol into a carboxylic acid.

Potassium manganate(VII) oxidises an alcohol to a carboxylic acid.
5.

Ethene reacts with hydrogen. Predict the product formed.

Ethene + hydrogen → ethane.
6.

Propan-1-ol is heated with potassium manganate(VII). Predict the organic product formed.

Propan-1-ol + potassium manganate(VII) → propanoic acid.

C6.2d Recall the basic principles of addition polymerisation by reference to the functional group in the monomer and the repeating units in the polymer

1.

Which homologous series is used as the monomer in addition polymerisation?

Alkenes are the monomers used in addition polymerisation.
2.

Which bond in the monomer opens during addition polymerisation?

The carbon–carbon double bond (C=C) opens during the reaction.
3.

Explain why addition polymerisation only occurs with unsaturated monomers.

Addition polymerisation only occurs with unsaturated monomers because they contain a double bond.
4.

Explain what is meant by a repeating unit in an addition polymer.

A repeating unit is the section of the polymer chain that repeats many times.
5.

Draw the repeating unit formed from ethene.

Poly(ethene) repeating unit: –CH₂–CH₂–.
6.

Draw the repeating unit formed from propene.

Poly(propene) repeating unit: –CH₂–CH(CH₃)–.

C6.2e Explain the basic principles of condensation polymerisation

1.

What small molecule is produced during condensation polymerisation?

Water is the small molecule produced during condensation polymerisation.
2.

Name one type of condensation polymer.

One type of condensation polymer is a polyester (or polyamide).
3.

Explain why each monomer must contain at least two functional groups for condensation polymerisation.

Each monomer must contain at least two functional groups so long chains can form.
4.

Explain how condensation polymerisation differs from addition polymerisation.

Condensation polymerisation differs from addition polymerisation because a small molecule is eliminated.
5.

A polyester is made from a diol and a dicarboxylic acid. Name the small molecule produced.

A polyester made from a diol and a dicarboxylic acid produces water.
6.

Explain why ethanol cannot form a condensation polymer by itself.

Ethanol cannot form a condensation polymer by itself because it contains only one functional group.

C6.2f Describe practical techniques to make a polymer by condensation

1.

What type of polymer is made by condensation polymerisation?

Polyamides (e.g. nylon) are made by condensation polymerisation.
2.

Name the practical used in school to demonstrate condensation polymerisation.

The school practical is the nylon rope trick.
3.

Explain why two different monomers are used to make nylon.

Two different monomers are used because one contains amine groups and the other carboxylic acid (or acyl chloride) groups.
4.

Explain why a fibre forms where the two solutions meet.

A nylon fibre forms where the two solutions meet because the polymer is produced at the interface.
5.

During the nylon rope trick, why is the polymer pulled continuously from the boundary between the two liquids?

The nylon is pulled continuously because new polymer keeps forming at the boundary.
6.

A student stops pulling the nylon thread during the practical. Explain why no more nylon can be collected.

If pulling stops, no more nylon is collected because the polymer layer prevents the reactants from meeting.

C6.2g Deduce the structure of an addition polymer from a simple alkene monomer and vice versa

1.

Which type of monomer forms an addition polymer?

Alkenes form addition polymers.
2.

What do the brackets and n represent in the displayed formula of an addition polymer?

The brackets show the repeating unit and n means the unit repeats many times.
3.

Explain how the repeating unit of an addition polymer is related to its alkene monomer.

The repeating unit is formed when the alkene double bond opens.
4.

Explain how you can identify the monomer from the repeating unit of an addition polymer.

The monomer is identified by restoring the carbon–carbon double bond.
5.

Deduce the monomer used to produce the repeating unit –CH₂–CH₂–.

Repeating unit –CH₂–CH₂– comes from ethene.
6.

An addition polymer has the repeating unit –CH₂–CH(CH₃)–. Deduce the monomer.

Repeating unit –CH₂–CH(CH₃)– comes from propene.

C6.2h Recall that DNA is a polymer made from four different monomers called nucleotides and that other important naturally-occurring polymers are based on sugars and amino-acids

1.

What type of polymer is DNA?

DNA is a natural polymer.
2.

What are the monomers that make up DNA called?

The monomers of DNA are nucleotides.
3.

Explain how DNA differs from an addition polymer.

DNA differs from an addition polymer because it is formed by condensation polymerisation from different monomers.
4.

Explain why proteins are described as naturally occurring polymers.

Proteins are naturally occurring polymers because they are made by living organisms.
5.

Which type of monomer joins together to form proteins?

Amino acids join together to form proteins.
6.

A polymer is made from amino acids. Identify the type of naturally occurring polymer formed.

A polymer made from amino acids is a protein (polypeptide).

C6.2i Recall that it is the generality of reactions of functional groups that determine the reactions of organic compounds

1.

What determines the reactions of an organic compound?

The functional group determines the reactions of an organic compound.
2.

Which part of an organic molecule is responsible for its characteristic reactions?

The functional group is responsible for the compound's characteristic reactions.
3.

Explain why ethanol and propan-1-ol have similar chemical reactions.

Ethanol and propan-1-ol react similarly because they both contain the –OH functional group.
4.

Explain why ethene reacts differently from ethane.

Ethene reacts differently from ethane because ethene contains a carbon–carbon double bond.
5.

Methanol and butan-1-ol both contain the same functional group. Predict whether they will have similar chemical reactions.

Methanol and butan-1-ol have similar chemical reactions because they have the same functional group.
6.

A compound contains a carboxyl functional group. Predict whether it will react more like ethanol or ethanoic acid.

A compound containing a –COOH group reacts more like ethanoic acid than ethanol.

C6.2j Describe the separation of crude oil by fractional distillation

1.

What process is used to separate crude oil?

Crude oil is separated by fractional distillation.
2.

Where in a fractionating column do the highest boiling point fractions condense?

The highest boiling point fractions condense near the bottom of the fractionating column.
3.

Explain why crude oil can be separated by fractional distillation.

Crude oil can be separated because it is a mixture of hydrocarbons with different boiling points.
4.

Explain why different fractions condense at different heights in the fractionating column.

Different fractions condense at different heights because the temperature decreases up the column.
5.

A hydrocarbon condenses near the bottom of a fractionating column. What can you conclude about its boiling point?

A hydrocarbon that condenses near the bottom has a high boiling point.
6.

Explain why refinery gases are collected at the top of the fractionating column.

Refinery gases are collected at the top because they have the lowest boiling points and remain as gases until the coolest part of the column.

C6.2k Explain the separation of crude oil by fractional distillation

1.

Which type of force exists between alkane molecules?

Weak intermolecular forces exist between alkane molecules.
2.

What happens to intermolecular forces as alkane molecules increase in size?

As alkane molecules increase in size, the intermolecular forces become stronger.
3.

Explain why larger hydrocarbons have higher boiling points.

Larger hydrocarbons have higher boiling points because more energy is needed to overcome the stronger intermolecular forces.
4.

Explain why smaller hydrocarbons leave the fractionating column nearer the top.

Smaller hydrocarbons leave the fractionating column nearer the top because they have lower boiling points.
5.

A hydrocarbon has a boiling point of 320 °C. Predict where it will condense in the fractionating column.

A hydrocarbon with a boiling point of 320°C condenses low down in the fractionating column.
6.

Explain why methane has a much lower boiling point than hexadecane.

Methane has a much lower boiling point than hexadecane because methane has much weaker intermolecular forces.

C6.2l Describe the fractions as largely a mixture of compounds of formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ which are members of the alkane homologous series

1.

What is the general formula of the alkane homologous series?

The general formula of alkanes is CₙH₂ₙ₊₂.
2.

Which homologous series makes up most compounds in crude oil fractions?

Most compounds in crude oil fractions are alkanes.
3.

Explain why crude oil fractions are described as mixtures rather than pure substances.

Crude oil fractions are mixtures because they contain many different hydrocarbons.
4.

Explain how all alkanes in a homologous series are chemically similar.

All alkanes have similar chemical properties because they belong to the same homologous series.
5.

Which alkane has the molecular formula C₆H₁₄?

C₆H₁₄ is hexane.
6.

A hydrocarbon has the formula C₁₂H₂₆. Identify the homologous series it belongs to.

C₁₂H₂₆ belongs to the alkane homologous series.

C6.2m Recall that crude oil is a main source of hydrocarbons and is a feedstock for the petrochemical industry

1.

What is the main source of hydrocarbons?

The main source of hydrocarbons is crude oil.
2.

What is meant by a feedstock?

A feedstock is a raw material used to manufacture other chemicals or products.
3.

Explain why crude oil is important to the petrochemical industry.

Crude oil is important because it supplies hydrocarbons for the petrochemical industry.
4.

Explain why hydrocarbons from crude oil are used to make many useful products.

Hydrocarbons from crude oil are used to manufacture plastics, solvents, detergents, lubricants and many other chemicals.
5.

Name one product made using hydrocarbons from crude oil other than fuels.

One product made from crude oil other than fuels is plastic.
6.

Explain why crude oil is described as a feedstock rather than just a fuel.

Crude oil is described as a feedstock because it is used to make many useful chemicals as well as fuels.

C6.2n Explain how modern life is crucially dependent upon hydrocarbons and recognise that crude oil is a finite resource

1.

What is meant by a finite resource?

A finite resource is one that will eventually run out because it is not replaced quickly enough.
2.

Name one everyday use of hydrocarbons other than as fuels.

One everyday use of hydrocarbons other than fuels is making plastics.
3.

Explain why modern life depends heavily on hydrocarbons.

Modern life depends on hydrocarbons because they are used to produce fuels, plastics, medicines, detergents and many other products.
4.

Explain why crude oil is described as a finite resource.

Crude oil is finite because it takes millions of years to form.
5.

A country continues to use crude oil faster than new reserves are formed. Explain why this is unsustainable.

Using crude oil faster than it is formed is unsustainable.
6.

Explain why alternatives to crude oil are becoming increasingly important.

Alternatives to crude oil are becoming increasingly important because supplies are limited and environmental concerns are increasing.

C6.2o Describe the production of materials that are more useful by cracking

1.

What is cracking?

Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into smaller hydrocarbons.
2.

Which type of hydrocarbon is always produced during cracking?

An alkene is always produced during cracking.
3.

Explain why long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked.

Long-chain hydrocarbons are cracked because they are less useful and less in demand.
4.

Explain why cracking is an important industrial process.

Cracking is important because it produces high-demand fuels and alkenes for making polymers.
5.

A refinery has a surplus of long-chain hydrocarbons but a high demand for petrol. Explain why cracking is carried out.

A refinery cracks surplus long-chain hydrocarbons to produce more petrol and alkenes.
6.

A long-chain alkane is cracked. Predict the types of products that will be formed.

Cracking a long-chain alkane produces a mixture of short-chain alkanes and alkenes.

C6.2p Recall that a chemical cell produces a potential difference until the reactants are used up

1.

What does a chemical cell produce?

A chemical cell produces a potential difference (voltage).
2.

When does a chemical cell stop producing a potential difference?

A chemical cell stops producing a potential difference when the reactants are used up.
3.

Explain how a chemical cell produces a potential difference.

A chemical cell produces a potential difference through chemical reactions involving electron transfer.
4.

Explain why a chemical cell eventually stops working.

A chemical cell eventually stops working because one or more reactants are exhausted.
5.

A battery no longer produces a voltage. Explain why.

A battery no longer produces a voltage because its reactants have been used up.
6.

Explain why replacing the reactants allows a chemical cell to produce a potential difference again.

Replacing the reactants allows the chemical cell to produce a potential difference again because the chemical reactions can restart.

C6.2q Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of hydrogen/oxygen and other fuel cells for given uses

1.

Which two reactants are used in a hydrogen/oxygen fuel cell?

A hydrogen/oxygen fuel cell uses hydrogen and oxygen as reactants.
2.

What is the only chemical product of a hydrogen/oxygen fuel cell?

The only chemical product is water.
3.

Explain one advantage of hydrogen/oxygen fuel cells compared with petrol engines.

One advantage is that no carbon dioxide is produced during operation.
4.

Explain one disadvantage of hydrogen/oxygen fuel cells.

One disadvantage is that hydrogen is difficult to store and transport (or production can be expensive).
5.

A bus company wants to reduce air pollution in a city centre. Explain one reason why hydrogen fuel cells may be a suitable choice.

Hydrogen fuel cells are suitable for buses because they produce very little air pollution at the point of use.
6.

Evaluate whether hydrogen/oxygen fuel cells are more suitable than petrol engines for cars, giving one advantage and one disadvantage.

Compared with petrol engines, hydrogen fuel cells produce less pollution, but require special infrastructure and hydrogen production, making them less practical in some situations.

C6.3a Interpret evidence for how it is thought the atmosphere was originally formed

1.

What process is thought to have formed the Earth's early atmosphere?

The Earth's early atmosphere is thought to have formed mainly through volcanic activity (volcanic outgassing).
2.

Which gas made up most of the Earth's early atmosphere?

The gas that made up most of the early atmosphere was carbon dioxide.
3.

Explain why scientists think the early atmosphere contained very little oxygen.

Scientists think there was very little oxygen because there were no photosynthetic organisms to produce it.
4.

Explain how volcanic activity contributed to the formation of the Earth's early atmosphere.

Volcanoes released gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapour and nitrogen, forming the early atmosphere.
5.

Evidence shows that modern volcanoes release carbon dioxide, water vapour and nitrogen. Explain how this supports theories about the Earth's early atmosphere.

Modern volcanoes release similar gases, supporting the theory that the early atmosphere formed by volcanic activity.
6.

Explain why scientists use evidence from rocks and volcanoes to develop models of the Earth's early atmosphere.

Scientists use evidence from rocks, volcanoes and meteorites to develop and improve models of the Earth's early atmosphere.

C6.3b Describe how it is thought an oxygen-rich atmosphere developed over time

1.

Which organisms first released oxygen into the atmosphere?

The first organisms to release oxygen were algae and other photosynthetic microorganisms.
2.

Which process carried out by these organisms released oxygen?

Oxygen was released by photosynthesis.
3.

Explain why atmospheric oxygen levels increased over millions of years.

Atmospheric oxygen increased over millions of years because photosynthetic organisms continuously released oxygen.
4.

Explain how photosynthesis changed the composition of the Earth's atmosphere.

Photosynthesis increased oxygen levels while reducing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
5.

Explain why carbon dioxide levels fell as photosynthetic organisms became more abundant.

Carbon dioxide levels fell because it was used in photosynthesis and became locked up in rocks and fossil fuels.
6.

Scientists discover evidence of early photosynthetic organisms. Explain how this supports the development of an oxygen-rich atmosphere.

Evidence of early photosynthetic organisms supports the theory that photosynthesis caused the development of today's oxygen-rich atmosphere.

C6.3c Describe the greenhouse effect in terms of the interaction of radiation with matter within the atmosphere

1.

What type of radiation from the Sun passes through the Earth's atmosphere?

Short-wave radiation (visible light) from the Sun passes through the atmosphere.
2.

Which type of radiation emitted by the Earth is absorbed by greenhouse gases?

Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation emitted by the Earth.
3.

Explain how greenhouse gases warm the Earth.

Greenhouse gases warm the Earth by absorbing and re-emitting infrared radiation.
4.

Explain why the natural greenhouse effect is important for life on Earth.

The natural greenhouse effect keeps the Earth warm enough to support life.
5.

Explain what happens to infrared radiation after it is absorbed by greenhouse gases.

After absorption, infrared radiation is re-radiated in all directions, including back towards the Earth's surface.
6.

Explain why increasing the concentration of greenhouse gases increases the Earth's average temperature.

Increasing greenhouse gas concentrations means more infrared radiation is trapped, increasing the Earth's average temperature.

C6.3d Evaluate the evidence for additional anthropogenic (human activity) causes of climate change and describe the uncertainties in the evidence base

1.

What does the term anthropogenic mean?

Anthropogenic means caused by human activity.
2.

Which human activity has caused a large increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide?

The main human activity increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide is the burning of fossil fuels.
3.

Explain why burning fossil fuels is linked to climate change.

Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide, strengthening the greenhouse effect and contributing to climate change.
4.

Explain why predictions of future climate change contain uncertainties.

Predictions contain uncertainties because the climate is complex and future human activities cannot be known exactly.
5.

Scientists observe increasing atmospheric carbon dioxide alongside increasing fossil fuel use. Explain what this evidence suggests.

Rising carbon dioxide levels alongside increased fossil fuel use provide evidence that human activity contributes to climate change.
6.

Explain why climate scientists continue to collect evidence even though there is strong evidence that human activity contributes to climate change.

Scientists continue collecting evidence to improve climate models and increase confidence in future predictions.

C6.3e Describe the potential effects of increased levels of carbon dioxide and methane on the Earth's climate and how these effects may be mitigated

1.

Name one greenhouse gas other than carbon dioxide.

One greenhouse gas other than carbon dioxide is methane.
2.

State one possible effect of climate change.

One possible effect of climate change is rising sea levels (or more extreme weather).
3.

Explain how methane contributes to climate change.

Methane contributes to climate change because it is a powerful greenhouse gas that traps infrared radiation.
4.

Explain one method used to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

One method of reducing greenhouse gas emissions is using renewable energy instead of fossil fuels.
5.

Explain how planting trees can help reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide.

Planting trees helps remove carbon dioxide because trees absorb CO₂ during photosynthesis.
6.

A country replaces coal-fired power stations with renewable energy. Explain how this helps to mitigate climate change.

Replacing coal-fired power stations with renewable energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions and helps mitigate climate change.

C6.3f Describe the major sources of carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and particulates in the atmosphere and explain the problems caused by increased amounts of these substances

1.

Which poisonous gas is produced by incomplete combustion?

Carbon monoxide is produced by incomplete combustion.
2.

Which pollutant is mainly responsible for acid rain?

Sulfur dioxide is the main pollutant responsible for acid rain.
3.

Explain how oxides of nitrogen are formed in vehicle engines.

Oxides of nitrogen form when nitrogen and oxygen react at high temperatures inside vehicle engines.
4.

Explain why particulates can cause health problems.

Particulates can cause health problems because they can become trapped in the lungs.
5.

A diesel engine produces large amounts of particulates. Explain one problem this may cause.

Large amounts of particulates from diesel engines increase the risk of respiratory diseases.
6.

Explain why catalytic converters reduce harmful emissions from petrol vehicles.

Catalytic converters reduce harmful emissions by converting carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides into less harmful gases.

C6.3g Describe the principal methods for increasing the availability of potable water in terms of the separation techniques used

1.

What is meant by potable water?

Potable water is water that is safe to drink.
2.

Which separation technique is used to produce potable water from salt water?

Distillation is used to produce potable water from sea water.
3.

Explain why ground water usually requires less treatment than waste water.

Ground water usually requires less treatment because it has been naturally filtered through rocks.
4.

Explain why desalination is more energy-intensive than treating ground water.

Desalination is more energy-intensive because large amounts of energy are needed to evaporate water or force it through membranes.
5.

Compare the ease of treatment of waste water, ground water and salt water.

Ground water requires the least treatment, waste water requires more treatment, and sea water requires the most treatment.
6.

A region can obtain drinking water from ground water, treated waste water or sea water. Select the source that requires the least treatment to become potable and explain your answer.

Ground water is the best source when available because it requires the least processing to become potable, making it cheaper and less energy-intensive.